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inconel718-blog · 5 years

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Inconel 718 Suppliers

Inconel 718 pipe can be really a nickel-based precipitation-hardening metal constructed for high yield strength, tensile strength and creep properties in temperatures upward to 1300ºF (705ºC.) The metal contains excellent weldability.

https://www.inconel718.in/inconel-718-sheets-plates-coils-suppliers-and-price-per-kg-india.html

Inconel 718 plates can be really a precipitation-hardenable nickel-chromium metal comprising substantial levels of iron, niobium, and molybdenum and lower quantities of titanium and aluminum. It unites corrosion resistance and higher strength together with outstanding weldability, for example, immunity to post-weld cracking. The metal contains exemplary creep-rupture energy at temperatures up to 700 (1300 oF). Found in fuel tanks, rocket engines, spacecraft, atomic reactors, pumps, and tooling.

#APPLICATIONS

The metal is utilized in jet-engine along with high-performance air-frame pieces including screws, wheels and spacers, and high-temperature bolts and attachments. Inconel 718 can also be utilized from the gas and oil drilling and manufacturing businesses as a result of the high durability and immunity to chlorides, tension rust and sulfide stress cracking. Within such businesses the metal was put to use for valves, pump bottoms, and well-head elements.

#FORGING

Metal 718 ought to really be forged by the greatest furnace temperatures of 2050ºF (1120ºC) also may perhaps not be soaked to get a too long period in this particular temperature. Uniform discounts throughout hammering will stop the creation of the duplex grain arrangement. Employed at the scope 1700/1850ºF (925/1010ºC) will enhance the forging's potency whether its succeeding service temperatures are under 1100ºF (595ºC.)

#Heat-treatment

Heating remedies could possibly be corrected to provide necessary possessions. To find your Optimal/optimally Mix of stress rupture possessions, the subsequent very Intricate bicycle is most advocated:

Inch hr in 1750/1800ºF (955/980ºC) and atmosphere trendy, afterward 8 hrs in 1325ºF (720ºC) and trendy in 100ºF/hr (56ºC/ / hr) into 1150ºF (620ºC), wait for 2 hrs and atmosphere trendy.

For your Optimal/optimally space temperature and cryogenic electrical possessions the bicycle really is:

1-2hrs in 1950ºF (1065ºC) and atmosphere trendy, afterward 8 hrs in 1325ºF (720ºC) and trendy in 100ºF/hr (56ºC/ / hr) into 1150ºF (620ºC), wait for 2 hrs and air trendy.

#MACHINABILITY

Inconel 718 Sheet can be easily abbreviated in the annealed or age-hardened problems. Even the age-hardened state provides far better floor finish that the annealed state a more program life.

#WELDABILITY

The metal could be used in the annealed problems. Welding an age-hardened substance Is Going to Result in the creation of the softened heat-affected zone

Widespread Trade Names

Alloy 718, Inconel® 718, Impeccable 718

Specs

AMS 5596, AMS 5662, AMS 5663, AMS 5832, ASME Circumstance 2222-1, ASME SFA 5.14, ASTM B 637, ASTM B 670, EN 2.4668, GE B50TF14, GE B50TF15, UNS N07718, Werkstoff 2.4668

Capabilities

Very Good mechanical properties: tensile, tiredness plus creep-rupture

Great welding features, immune to Post-weld era breaking

Oxidation immune during its practical temperature array

Software

Gasoline blower motor components

Fire-arms Manufacturing

Fluid gas rocket engine parts

Springs, attachments

Cryogenic tanks

#Due to Its Distinctive Selection of possessions, Inconel 718 tube is famous using a Lot of Different significant sectors and software such as:

Gasoline blower Elements

Cryogenic storage tanks

Jet motors

Liquid-fueled rocket motors and parts

Fasteners and instrumentation components

Atomic gas component spacers

best extrusion tooling

Away hole shafting and power caked

#Nickel-alloy 718 and Inconel 718 Rod includes over 50 percent nickel and also of the Lot of Different components:

Ni 52.5percent

F-E 18.5percent

Cr 19 percent

Cb+Ta 5.13percent

Mo 3.05percent

Ti 0.9percent

Al.5percent

Co 1 percent maximum

M B Metal India is a distributor of metal 718 in tube, pipe, sheet, strip, plate, round bar, horizontal bar, forging stock, hexagon, cable, along with midsize segment. Additionally, the trailers which M B Metal India functions together with to furnish alloy 718 match or surpass market requirements from these major businesses like ASTM, SAE, ASME, AECMA pre-n, DIN, and ISO.

We sell and stock nickel-alloy 718 and Inconel® 718 at Pipe, tube, sheet, strip, plate, round bar, horizontal bar, forging stock, hexagon, cable and midsize segment.

We are also Provide Inconel, Monel, Nickel Etc.

Inconel 600

Inconel 625

Inconel 601

Inconel 800

Inconel 825

Inconel X750

Monel 400

Monel k500

Nickel

Nickel 200

Nickel 201

Titanium

Flanges

Stainless Steel

Monel

#Inconel 718 Plates, Alloy 718 Sheets, ASME SB 670 Inconel 718 Plate, JIS NCF 718 Plate, Inconel UNS N07718 Plates, Inconel Alloy 718 Coils, Inconel Alloy 718 Circle, 718 Inconel Hot-rolled Plates

We have been supplies a large variety of Alloy 718 Sheets, Plates and Coils into the clients, and it is broadly required because of the sturdiness and endurance. Inconel 718 Sheets has improved capability than Inconel 718 Sheets, which farther can be voluntarily age-old and functioned out. Inconel 718 Strip Coils can be really a nickel-chromium along with precipitation-hardenable metal-containing too notable amounts of iron, molybdenum, and niobium collectively with a lot of smaller sized quantities of aluminum and titanium. Inconel 718 Coils reveals rather large tensile, return, and creep-rupture attributes at towering temperature. Inconel 718 Plates (UNS N07718) has exceptional creep -- rupture strength at temperatures until 1300 Deg F. To execute this role, Inconel 718 slender Coils needs to be alternative heat-treated (remedy annealed can be really an interchangeable word ). But this cure in Metal 718 Slatting Coils tends the inclination to create notch brittleness in anxiety relievers. These Inconel 718 Slatting Coils are likewise getting offered at various dimensions and contours to the shoppers. The comfort of Inconel 718 Perforated Coils from the elderly illness may create the creation of the softened heating -- influenced zone. Metal 718 Plates is resistant to chloride and sulfide stress corrosion cracking. Normal uses of Alloy 718 Coils from the petroleum marketplace are gate valves, choke stalks, attachments, tubing hangers and flame protected valves. In addition, we offer you these Alloy 718 Perforated Coils market place industry rates.

#Inconel 718 Sheet, Plate & Coil Requirements

Characteristics : ASTM / ASME SB 670

Dimension : 1, 000 mm x 2000 mm, 12-20 mm x 2440 mm, 1500 mm x 3000 mm, 2000 mm x 2000 mm, 2000 mm x 4000 Millimeter

Thickness: 0.1mm to 1 2 Millimeter Thk

Sort: Coils, Foils, Rolls, Ordinary Sheet, Shim Sheet, Strip, Flats, Blank (Circle), Ring (Flange)

End: Warm wrapped plate (HR), Cool wrapped sheet (CR), 2 B, 2 D, BA NO(8), SATIN (Fulfilled using Plastic-coated )

Hardness: Gentle, Tough, Half Tough, Length Challenging, Spring Tricky, etc..

#Inconel 718 Plate, Sheet & Coil Chemical Structure

Grade Do Mn Si S Cu F-E Ni Cr

Inconel 718 0.08 maximum 0.35 maximum 0.35 maximum 0.015maximum 0.30 maximum -- 50.00 -- 55.00 17.00 -- 21.00

#Metal 718 Sheets, Plates & Coils Cosmetic Houses

Ingredient Density Melting Position Tensile Power Yield Strength (0.2%Offset) Elongation

Inconel 718 8.2 g/cm3 1350 °C (2460 °F) Psi -- 1,35,000, MPa -- 930 Psi -- 75,000, MPa -- 482 45 percent

#Equal Grade S for 718 Inconel Sheets & Plates

Typical WERKSTOFF NR. UNS JIS BS GOST AFNOR EN

Inconel 718 2.4668 N07718 -- -- -- -- --

Inconel 718 Sheet, Plate & Coil Price-list

#Inconel 718 Slatting Coil

FOB Cost: US $0.1-500 / Portion

Alloy 718 Perforated Coil

FOB Cost: US $0.1-500 / Portion

Inconel 718 shim sheets

FOB Cost: US $0.1-500 / Portion

Inconel 718 plates

FOB Cost: US $0.1-500 / Portion

Inconel 718 coils

FOB Cost: US $ US 0.1-500 / Portion

#Inconel 718 Sheets, Plate & Coils App Sectors

Off Shore Oil-drilling Organizations

Strength Era

Petro Chemicals

Gasoline Processing

Specialty Chemical Compounds

Merchandise

Pharmaceutical Tools

Chemical Devices

Sea Water Heater Devices

Heat Exchangers

Condensers

Pulp And Paper Marketplace

#Inconel 718 Sheets, Plate & Coils Check Certificates

We GIC supply Carpet TC (Exam Certification ) based on EN 10204/3.1B, Recyclables Certificate, 100 percent Radiography Exam Report, Alternative Party Inspection Report. In addition, we offer Conventional certifications such as EN 10204 3.1 and other demand for example. NACE MR 01075. FERRITE content material depending on criteria when asked with customers.

• EN 10204/3.1B, respectively.

• Recyclables Certificate

• 100 percent Radiography Exam Report

• Third-party Inspection Report, respectively

ASTM / ASME SB670 Inconel 718 Sheets, Plate & Coils Value-added Companies

#Content Screening:

We make certain our substances undergo rigorous superior evaluations before alerting them to your customers.

• Cosmetic Screening Like Tensile of Spot

• Hardness Exam

• Chemical Investigation -- Spectro Examination

• Favorable Content Identification -- PMI Screening

• Flattening Exam

• Micro and MacroTest

• Pitting Resistance Examination

• Flaring Exam

• Intergranular Corrosion (IGC) Exam

#Documentation

• Industrial Banners Including HS Code

• Packing Listing such as internet weight and gross weight, amount of buys, Marks, and Amounts

• Certification of Origin legalized/attested from Chamber of Commerce or Embassy

• Fumigation Certificates

• Raw Substance Testing Stories

• Substance Trace Ability Documents

• Top Quality Assurance Program (QAP)

• Heat-treatment Requires

• Exam Certifications certifying NACE MR0103, NACE MR0175

• Substance Check Certificates (MTC) according to EN 10204 3.1 along with EN 10204 3.2

• Assure List

• NABL accepted Laboratory Check Stories

• Welding Treatment Specification/Procedure Qualification Document, WPS/QPR

• Kind A for Those Aims of this Generalized System of Preferences (GSP)

#Inconel 718 Sheets, Plate & Coils Packaging

We all do value the character of the services and products some details have been paid focus on. All arrangement has been packed in line with the consumer's s criteria which includes prep for export including as for example wooden instance, pallet or in accordance with buyer's demand All delivery signs are supplied to get Inconel 718 Sheet, Plate and Coil shipping and delivery from the mill into the purchaser. Every mission starts with a tour of the skilled sales rep that assesses that the amount/burden of their possessions and shortens your client in regards to the essence of packaging demanded in addition to much different instruction when proceeding out of India.

W.NR 2.4668

UNS N07718

AWS 013

#inconel 718 pipe

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alanjguitar · 4 years

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Best Acoustic Guitars Under $100 Reviewed

After one particularly difficult and hasty move across country, I found myself for the first time in ten years without a guitar and barely any extra cash.

I wish I knew then what I knew now — that there are tons of great acoustic guitars under $100. In my ignorance, I bought a horribly used 3/4 size piece of junk off Craigslist for $60.

Although it kept me playing, I would have been much better off with one of the new guitars from this list.

If you’re in a similar pinch of needing a super low cost acoustic fast, take it from me and choose from among these top 7 best acoustic guitars under $100.

Our Recommendation

The Rogue Starter is going to be my best recommendation for when you’re really in a financial bind.

With $100 you can get this guitar and still have money to spare, so although it may not be the best in terms of sound or playability, it’s a great bargain, earning it our #7 spot.

When your budget truly maxes out at $100, you can upgrade all the way up to a beginner’s acoustic-electric such as our #1 choice in this category, the Jasmine S35. It’s pretty decent all around and comes with a bundle of accessories meant to kickstart your musical adventures.

The Top 7 Best Acoustic Guitars Under $100 – Overview

#7 Rogue Starter Check On Amazon >>

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Specs

Top – Laminate Spruce

Body – Unknown Tonewood

Neck – Maple

Fingerboard – Rosewood

Pros

Pinless bridge for easy string changes

Smooth-playing rosewood fingerboard

7/8 size great for kids or smaller players

Cons

Can have sharp fret edges that need filed down

Tinny sound, weak low-end

Review

There aren’t many acoustics at a lower price than the Rogue Starter, and those that you find for cheaper will be of significantly lower quality.

We’ll take a look at it’s better points before I tell you what’s wrong with it…

First, the Rogue Starter is a 7/8 size guitar, bringing it right between the 3/4 kids size and a full-scale dreadnought. This is a perfect design for smaller bodied adults or for kids around the age of 10 and up.

It’s not very loud, so parent won’t be driven nuts by their children’s lack of skill. A big point in its favor, it has proper intonation, so every fret sounds like it should.

The few weak points of the Rogue Starter are pretty common issues in guitars at this price point.

Its most grievous problem are its fret edges that can snag and nick your fingers as you move up the neck. This is fixable by taking a file to these overhangs and (gently) grinding them down. There are detailed instructions on how to do this here.

It’s a bright guitar with a pretty weak low-range and highs that can sound glassy and harsh when you play them loud.

Despite this, it’s a fun little guitar to play and will definitely hold you over while you save up for a better acoustic. We have a full review of the Rogue Starter you can read here.

#6 Rogue RA-090 Check On Amazon >>

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Specs

Top – Whitewood (basswood or poplar) Laminate

Body – Whitewood (basswood or poplar) Laminate

Neck – Nato

Fingerboard – Maple

Pros

Lightweight construction reduces player fatigue

Comfortable C-shape neck profile

Strong mid-range

Cons

Sharp fret edges

Extra-bright tone

Review

I used to be fully anti-Rogue, but after playing a few of their models and comparing them to my own emergency-purchase acoustic, I’ve come to admire them in a way.

Rather than the Starter’s rosewood fingerboard, the RA-090 is equipped with a maple piece, which, somewhat unfortunately, adds extra brightness to the tone.

This overabundance of high-end isn’t all bad, as the crispness really lets you hear where your technique is going wrong so you can learn to adjust your mistakes.

Judging by its lightweight build and full mid-range tonality, I’d guess its generic “whitewood” build is actually basswood. This tonewood choice keeps it low in cost and in weight, adding to its benefit for beginner players.

Like the Rogue Starter, the RA-090’s frets need filed, but aside from this there are no major problems to talk about.

All in all, not a bad guitar for the price.

#5 Martin Smith W-101-BK Check On Amazon >>

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Specs

Top – Unknown tonewood

Body – Unknown tonewood

Neck – Unknown tonewood

Fingerboard – Unknown tonewood

Bonus – Gig bag, guitar stand, tuner, picks, strap, extra strings

Pros

Great accessory bundle

Loud, full-size dreadnought

Available in different finishes

Cons

Completely unknown tonewood composition

Unstable tuning machines

Review

Martin Smith makes an array of entry-level instruments, but there’s not a lot of information available about what they’re made from.

Without an official company website and extremely vague specs listed in their sales pages, I can only guess at the tonewood combination based on feel and sound.

So, after a bit of time with Martin Smith’s W-101, I can tell you that, like most guitars in this category, it’s made of laminate basswood.

Its tone is very “basic acoustic,” with not a lot of special points to mention, but totally pleasant and not too tinny like guitars in this price point tend to be.

It has good action, a standard neck, and fine intonation.

The reason the W-101 is one of the best acoustic guitars under $100 is that it comes with a great beginner bundle of accessories. This includes a strap, a gig bag for transporting your instrument, a digital tuner, picks, extra strings (always smart to have on hand), and a guitar stand.

By itself, the guitar is pretty average, but they give you everything you need to start on your way to acoustic mastery.

#4 Jasmine S-35 Check On Amazon >>

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Specs

Top – Laminate Spruce

Body – Agathis

Neck – Nato

Fingerboard – Rosewood

Pros

Easy to play slim neck with smooth rosewood fingerboard

Big, bold tone

Stable tuning machines

Cons

Flat harmonics, not very complex tone

Review

Getting into our higher-end choices in this category, we have the Jasmine S-35.

Jasmine makes finely crafted entry-level acoustics that have better attention to detail than many guitars at this price point.

They lack the problems such as sharp frets, poor intonation, and low-quality tuning machines that plague other low-cost models.

The Jasmine S-35 uses Jasmine’s “Advanced X-bracing” to boost tone and volume, and its spruce + agathis tonewood combo gives it a well-balanced sound equally powerful in all ranges.

However, it doesn’t have much in the way of overtones, so I find the tone a bit boring and basic.

It has a slim neck profile that makes playing fun and easy, reducing finger strain and allowing beginners to practice for longer stretches of time.

Overall, the S-35 is built strong and solid, making it a great low-cost beginner or travel guitar.

#3 Squier SA-150 Check On Amazon >>

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Specs

Top – Lindenwood Laminate

Body – Mahogany

Neck – Nato

Fingerboard – Maple

Pros

Squier by Fender means trusted quality

Punchy tones

Fast and fun slim neck design

Cons

Flat sound

Review

This is the steel-string cousin of the SA-150N that made our list of the best classical guitars for beginners.

Squier is a trusted name in guitars, and even though they’re not necessarily known for their acoustics, they deliver a fine model in the SA-150.

Laminate lindenwood is used for the top and paired with mahogany back and sides. The result is a tone that responds well from the low to the high end, but lacks in the complex richness you’ll find in solid top acoustics.

Nonetheless, it’s a fun guitar to play, with a Fender-slim neck profile that has enough backing for solid chord progressions but a narrow enough radius to make riffing smooth and easy.

The SA-150’s maple fingerboard makes it highly responsive and extra bright and articulate, so you can hear each note truly and really fine-tune your technique.

It’s great for all acoustic genres but really shines in flatpicked bluegrass and fingerpicked blues.

With smooth frets, a solid build, and stable tuners, the SA-150 is one of the best choices for acoustics under $100.

#2 Ashthorpe Full-Size Cutaway Check On Amazon >>

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Specs

Top – Laminate Spruce

Body – Basswood

Neck – Okoume

Fingerboard – Unknown (probably rosewood)

Bonus – pickup + preamp, padded gig bag, picks, strap, extra strings, instrument cable

Pros

Acoustic electric design allows you to plug and play with tons of extra tones

Sturdy construction is warp resistant and withstands bumps and bangs

Players pack with a great padded gig bag and other accessories

Cons

Desperately needs a good set up

Can benefit from new tuning machines

Review

Here we have the only acoustic electric on this list, and it’s a great value!

The accessories included in this pack could cost you $100 alone, but you get a ton of extras plus a good acoustic all for a very low cost.

Ashthorpe’s Full-Size Thinline is a nice sounding acoustic electric that is really comfortable to play thanks to its reduced body depth and thin neck profile.

They chose a great tonewood combo of spruce and basswood, with a tone that’s warm and pleasant and just bright enough to really shine.

It’s got a simple electronic system that includes an under-saddle piezo pickup and a basic preamp with 4-band EQ. The electronics aren’t great, but they do the job of allowing you to play through an amp and experiment with your tonal controls to find the sound that’s right for you.

Interested in more acoustic electrics? We’ve covered the best affordable models in this article.

The cutaway design means you can play in the highest regions of the fretboard with no problem and really lets you explore the whole neck comfortably.

At such a low-cost, you might have money leftover for a cheap amp and effects pedal, so you can play around with effects, looping, and more to bring your musical experience to the next level.

Like most acoustics, it needs a set up out of the box, and its tuning machines are pretty low quality, so if you don’t want to tune up every 10 minutes you will want to change these out for higher grade pieces.

#1 ARTALL 41 Check On Amazon >>

Specs

Top – Solid Linden

Body – Linden

Neck – Maple

Fingerboard – Maple

Bonus – Gig bag, strap, picks, extra strings

Pros

Great beginner’s bundle with extra accessories

Solid linden top for added tonal complexity

Cutaway for easy access to upper frets

Cons

Wide neck can quickly tire beginners

Review

ARTALL is an obscure Chinese company that makes a wide range of different products, from bed sets to plush toys, so it’s a bit surprising that they also make a high quality beginner guitar.

Fact is, the ARTALL 41 inch acoustic is one of the best guitars available under $100.

The thing that sticks out the most to me is that it’s a rare non-electric cutaway acoustic.

Typically, a cutaway will mean an acoustic-electric model, and on low-cost guitars this means that the manufacturer skimps on basic construction points to add low-quality electronics.

With the ARTALL 41, you get the benefits of a cutaway and the upgraded quality of a solid top, sturdy build, and dependable hardware.

Plus, it’s a beautifully finished guitar that you’ll look good playing!

Its one downfall is that its neck is on the wider end of acoustics, so beginners might experience a bit more playing fatigue than with a slim neck design, and it’s a bit too big for smaller kids.

All things considered, this is a great acoustic at an amazing price.

Buyer’s Guide

Is it Worth Buying a Guitar for Under $100?

Worth is generally a subjective idea, and you’ll have to think about what you want out of a guitar and how long you can save before making your choice.

I’m an acoustic addict, and to go without a guitar for any stretch of time makes me really uncomfortable. When I found myself without an acoustic and with barely enough money to afford rent, I had to get the first thing I could afford.

For me, my $60 Craigslist guitar was totally worth it. It kept me from boredom, depression, and songless despair, while allowing me to afford the basic necessities of life.

If you really want to play a guitar, NOW, and you don’t have much extra cash, a guitar in this price range can be 100% worth the money.

Who Should Buy a Guitar in this Price Range?

I wouldn’t recommend a guitar in this price range to a professional, but they’re perfect for beginners.

If you’re like me, that is, an upper intermediate player, and you really need an acoustic, these are all great choices in times of desperation.

Parents who want to enable their kids to explore a musical hobby can’t go wrong with these models and don’t have to worry about a sunk cost in something your kid might wind up with no interest in. You can check out more great guitars for kids in this article.

Can Acoustic Guitars for Under $100 Be Upgraded?

Some of these guitars have substandard tuning machines that almost need to be upgraded if you want to avoid the frustration of coming out of tune mid-song.

Changing your tuning machines is a great way to learn the basics of guitar maintenance and repair.

There are some other things that can cause tuning problems, so read here first to find out if it’s really your tuning machines that need replaced.

Aside from that, I wouldn’t focus too much on upgrading these guitars.

They’re meant to be entry-level guitars, and outside of changing the tuning machines I wouldn’t invest much more money in them, but rather save up your cash for your next new guitar, like something in the under $300 range that we’ve covered here.

What Are Guitars Under $100 Good For?

$100 guitars are great for when you need guitar fast. They’re playable, sound okay, and aren’t going to destroy your financial life.

When all you want to do is play at home or maybe jam around campfire, or if you’re planning a hiking trip and know you need an instrument with you, these are great models to choose from.

That being said, they do have their limiations. For sure, if you want to start playing live, you should take a look at these acoustic guitars under $500, and for any serious recording sessions you’ll want to see the best acoustic electric guitars for the money.

Guitars under $100 are intimate, personal instruments that are best suited for private practice, for students, or for throwaway instruments when you have rough travels ahead. Intersted in more travel guitars? Check out this review.

The Final Word

There’s no shame in buying a guitar for under $100, and if this is the price range you can afford, any of the models listed above are guaranteed to meet your needs.

In this category we’ve got guitars for kids, acoustics for students, and full-size acoustic electric models for when you really need to check out some amplified effects.

Whether you choose the 7/8 Rogue Starter or the full-size ARTALL 41, you’ll have a great time playing with the comforting knowledge that you can now start saving for the next instrument companion on your life-long musical journey.

The post Best Acoustic Guitars Under $100 Reviewed appeared first on Beginnerguitar.

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josephlrushing · 4 years

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Gear Diary’s Best of NAMM 2020 Awards

The National Association of Music Merchants Show, better known as NAMM is wrapping up. A lot of amazing music gear came out this year; these were the items that blew us away.

IK Multimedia Amplitube Joe Satriani App

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IK Multimedia comes through with the Joe Satriani AmpliTube App, which can be used as a Digital Audio Workstation (DAW) plugin or as a standalone app. The app includes 11 brand new models including 3 amps, 3 cabinets, and 5 stomps. When used as a standalone application, AmpliTube Custom Shop features a 4-track recorder section and a song-player for easy play-along capabilities. The SpeedTrainer function allows you to slow down the audio so you can learn Satch’s signature licks note for note without affecting the pitch.

dB Technologies KSL-Sub Soundscape Subwoofer

The new KSL-SUB is a beast. It measures 39.4 x 35.4 x 17.7 inches and weighs a whopping 181 pounds. Driven by d&b D80 amplifiers, it has a stated output of 139 dB. It has two forward-facing15-inch drivers and a single, rear-facing 15-inch driver and is driven by 2-way active amplification. This provides cardioid directivity control and a booming sound. This isn’t a subwoofer you’d buy for your home, but if you are in charge of making sure that the music in your coffee shop, theater, music venue, house of worship, or concert hall sounds as impressive (and 3D) as possible, you’ll want to speak to them about how to make that happen.

Roland TD-27KV (From the V DrumsAcustic Design Series)

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The Roland TD-27KV is described as a “mid-level” drum kit but it sure doesn’t look that way from here. It has a powerful new TD-27 sound engine that creates “premium-grade, fully-customizable drum and cymbal sounds.” It not only looks impressive but it has features that musicians of every experience will appreciate. These include:

Mid-size V-Drums kit with flagship-class sound

TD-27 sound module with advanced Prismatic Sound Modeling derived from the flagship TD-50

14″ digital snare and 18″ ride cymbal with high-resolution, multi-sensor triggering for unparalleled dynamics and accurate positional detection

Large-diameter pads and cymbals provide an acoustic-like playing experience

Drum in a variety of hyper-realistic sound spaces with newly developed PureAcoustic Ambience

Hands-on interface for quick-and-easy selecting and personalizing drum sounds

Import your own WAV samples via an SD card

Stereo mix output and two assignable outputs for sending individual drum sounds to a PA mixer

Integrated 28-channel USB audio interface for professional computer music production

Three auxiliary trigger inputs for easy kit expansion

Onboard Bluetooth for drumming with music from a smartphone or laptop

Built-in practice functions for developing drumming skills

Gibson 70s Flying V

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The music of our youth was typified by a few things. There was long hair, long drum solos and soaring lead guitar lines that were, oftentimes, played on the iconic V-shaped electric guitar. With the 70s Flying V Gibson has brought back a classic of classic rock and we love it. Available in white as a right-handed guitar, the 70s Flying V pays tribute to some of the greatest rock of all time. But the 70s Flying V isn’t just a trip down memory lane. No, this guitar has a classic design but is ready to create great music today. At just under $2000 it is a bit pricey but can you really put a price tag on recapturing your youth?

Check out this video!

Now tell us that doesn’t send you back to your youth and your parents tell you to “turn that crap down!!!”

Casio GP-310 Grand Hybrid Piano

The Casio’s Grand Hybrid GP-310 may look like a traditional upright piano but those classic looks hide some great modern technology. It plays the way you would any piano but you get much more control thanks to the electronics built into it. There are six speakers, an amplifier, and a control panel that lets you control the sound- there are three classic “pianos” the GP-310 can mimic. So while the GP-310 looks like an upright piano but can sound like a grand piano that would be much larger and more expensive. In addition, you can turn off the speakers, plug in a pair of headphones, and play to your heart’s delight without disturbing everyone in the house or the paints next to you if you are in a music lab.

Features include:

A revolutionary piano experience designed in collaboration with C. Bechstein

Full-length Austrian spruce piano keys plus a true grand piano hammer mechanism

Enhanced EQ options, new Harpsichord tone, and new key on/off mechanical sounds

Enhanced touch response with a wider dynamic range

Three of the world’s greatest grand pianos, with improved response and longer decay

Newly-upgraded six-speaker sound system

Elegant cabinet with satin black finish New high-contrast inverted display for increased visibility

This video offers a better understanding of how this single hybrid piano can sound like three entirely different instruments. It’s pretty Coll and worth watching the entire way through!

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Fender Hand-Wired ’64 Custom Princeton Reverb

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The Fender Hand-Wired ’64 Custom Princeton Reverb is another throwback to the sounds of old. As Fender explains:

The mid-’60s Deluxe Reverb was played on countless hit recordings, becoming one of the most indispensable workhorse guitar amps ever made. Carrying on that legacy with incredible vintage-style tones, the pedal-friendly ’64 Custom Deluxe Reverb features modified all-tube, hand-wired AB763 circuitry for the snappy, crystalline tone only a Fender amp can produce.

With a solid pine cabinet, tube-driven reverb ad tremolo and a hand-wired AB763 circuit, the ’64 Custom Deluxe Reverb delivers the “quintessential Fender tone.” Fender explains that a number of benefits associated with hand-wiring an amp. It takes eight times as long to build compared to a printed circuit board. These include the sturdy connection between various internal components and the prospect of easier service if the need arises.

Other features include a 20-watt ’64 Custom Deluxe Reverb with Pure Vintage Blue Tone capacitors, a solid-pine cabinet and a 12” Jensen C12Q ceramic speaker. It has a normal channel and a bright channel so one amp can deliver some surprisingly varied experiences. The video below lets you hear the difference and it is pretty remarkable. It sounds amazing. Add in the iconic looks of the amplifier and you’ll understand why this carries a hefty price tag just south of $2500.

Akai MPC One

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When the iPod first came to market it looked like a standalone device but it relied on a computer for set up. The first iPhones did too. In recent years however that is no longer the case. The iPhone now stands on its own and rarely, if ever, needs to be connected to a computer. That’s the idea behind the new Akai MPC One. Instead of depending upon a computer to process the music you are creating, the Akai MPC One stands on its own. It is, “a total music production solution to take your ideas from concept to finalized radio-ready beats.” From beat programming to editing to mixing FX and instruments and more, it does everything without the need to be plugged into your Mac or Windows PC.

It offers:

FULL CONTROL: MPC ONE delivers a truly empowering hands-on experience, ready for any music production task. Edit and trim samples with hand gestures on the brilliant 7” touch screen display. Express your ideas perfectly with the assigned knobs and touch keys that eliminate diving through pages of menus.

STUDIO CONNECTIVITY: MPC One integrates into your creative space with all the ports and jacks you need. USB, MIDI DIN, CV/Gate, and 1/4” line-level audio input. With USB and SD card slots, you can save, transfer and share your music.

PRO PERFORMANCE & TECHNIQUES: Your favorite music production techniques come standard on MPC One. Tape Stop effect, Note Repeat for pulsing hi-hats, and 16 Levels to play that melodic 808s plus many more.

With a 7” multi-touch display, four 360 degree touch-sensitive Q-Link knobs, sixteen velocity-sensitive RGB pads, a large rotary encoder knob, and a full-size SD card slot, this small device packs a punch. Connectivity includes a 1/8” headphone jack, a 1/4” stereo input/output, MIDI in/out, USB-A/USB-B, four TRS/Gate Jacks and network connectivity, the MPC One cuts the cord without taking short cuts.

Pioneer DJM-V10

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Finally, there’s the Pioneer DJM-V10 mixer. Pioneer describes it as “a new breed of mixer, born of fresh thinking.” They go on to explain that it allows DJs to craft unique soundscapes that are sure to impress. The DJM-V10 is a 6-channel mixer with a 4-band equalizer and compressor.

Features include:

ELITE SOUND QUALITY: Feel the warmth of natural sound and hear every detail. Studio-quality 64-bit mixing and dithering processing, 32-bit high-quality A/D and D/A converters, a low-jitter clock circuit, and many other components all work to produce a full low-end, vibrant mids, and precise highs.

6 CHANNELS WITH A WIDE RANGE OF INPUTS: You’re free to create your perfect setup with 6 channels and a host of different input types.

4-BAND EQ AND COMPRESSOR: Take full control of your mix with the newly developed 4-band EQ. A built-in compressor enables further adjustment of the loudness of your tracks.

EFFECTS FOR MORE CREATIVE EXPRESSION: The expanded send/return section enables you to add external FX, or even combine them with built-in FX. Create unique sounds; the possibilities are nearly limitless

3-BAND MASTER ISOLATOR: Effortlessly control the tone of your entire mix with the 3-band master isolator, featuring new boost/cut curves and adjustments to the crossover frequencies and other parameters. Grab the large dials and drive the crowd wild by drastically changing the sound.

DUAL HEADPHONES OUTPUT AND BOOTH EQ: The DJM-V10 makes back-to-back monitoring simple and comfortable. You can tweak the sound in the DJ booth just the way you like.

If you are a professional DJ this new mixer is worth serious consideration.

from Joseph Rushing https://geardiary.com/2020/01/19/gear-diarys-best-of-namm-2020-awards/

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rohitkoluguri-blog · 6 years

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A Quick Look At The Latest Happenings In The Citric Acid Market

Asia Pacific to dominate the Citric Acid Market during the forecast period:

Asia Pacific is likely to dominate the Citric Acid Market during the forecast period. China is the major consumer of household detergents, with citric acid finding its application in detergents. Europe occupies the second position in the market, followed by US, due to the consumption of citric acid across the world. Africa, Japan, and Middle East hold an equal share due to detergent consumption in household activities. In the Americas, the large end user segment is the food and beverage segment, followed by the industrial segment and pharmaceutical segment. In Europe, citric acid is used as acidulates in the food & beverage industry.

Selected Analysis done in the Citric Acid Market Report:

Citric acid has high antioxidant properties due to which it is used as an excipient in pharmaceutical preparations. The salts of citric acid are used as anticoagulants due to their Calcium chelating ability. 10% of citric acid is used in non-food related products such as cosmetics, pharmaceuticals, and chemical industry. In Biotechnology and pharmaceutical industries, citric acid is used as a substitute for nitric acid to enhance high purity process piping. It is even used in effervescent systems. These systems are applied in denture cleaning products, pain relief and vitamin tablets. Citric acid is also used to control the pH of the system. It acts as a buffering system which is used in pharmaceutical and cosmetic applications to preserve the stability.

Excerpts on Citric Acid Market Growth Factors

Citric acid is used in the food canning industry to lower the pH and stop enzymatic oxidation. It also plays an important role in the stability of the frozen food.

Citric acid is used as a blood anticoagulant as the citrate ion chelates the Calcium, thereby preventing blood from clotting.

Citric acid is an environmentally friendly chemical. Hence, it is used as a major chemical in the industrial sector. This factor drives the demand for the Citric Acid Market.

Citric acid is used in the manufacturing of detergents, where Sodium Citrate is used to increase the effectiveness of surfactants due to its high solubility and degradability.

To access / purchase the China Professional Hair Care Market report browse the link below:

https://industryarc.com/Report/7368/Citric-Acid-Market-Research-Report.html

Key players of the Citric Acid Market:

The main key players of the Citric Acid Market are Tate & Lyle, Archer Daniels Midland Company (ADM), JungbunzlauerAG,Cargill Corporation, and Hoffmann-La Roche AG. Tata &Lyte is the largest company in the Citric Acid Market. It has a plant capacity of 165000 MTPA globally. Archer Daniels Midland Company is the second largest company in the world and the largest company in the US. It operates in divisions such as oil seed products, corn starch products, bio-products, and other grains. Jungbunzlauer AG is specialized in producing citric acid. Cargil Corporation is one of the world’s largest agribusiness companies in the world. It started producing citric acid in 1991. Hoffmann-La Roche AG manufactures flavors, fragrances, vitamins, carotenoids and genetic- engineering products.

Citric Acid Market is segmented as below:

Citric acid is used in industries such as pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, and toiletries.

A. Citric Acid Market By Grade 1. Food grade 2. Industrial Grade 3. Pharmaceutical Grade 4. Others

B. Citric Acid Market ByForm 1. Powder 2. Liquid

C. Citric Acid Market By End Use Industry 1. Food & Beverage 2. Pharmaceutical 3. Soap & Detergent 4. Printing 5. Others

D. Citric Acid Market By Application 1. Acidulant 2. Stabilizer 3. Cleaning Agent 4. Binding Agent 5. Others

E. Citric Acid Market By Geography( covers 11+ countries) F. Citric Acid Market Entropy

Companies Citied / Interviewed in Citric Acid Market

1. COFCO Bio-chemical (Anhui) Co., Ltd 2. Yixing-union Biochemical Co., Ltd 3. Jiangsu GadotNuobei Biochemical Co., Ltd 4. Shandong JuxianHongde Citric Acid Co., Ltd. 5. HuangshiXinghua Biochemical Co., Ltd 6. LaiwuTaihe Biochemical Co., Ltd 7. Shandong Hongshide Chemical Co., Ltd 8. Tate & Lyle 9. Archer Daniels Midland Company 10. Hoffmann-La Roche AG 11. Company 11+

What can you expect from the report? The Citric Acid Market report is Prepared with the Main Agenda to Cover the following 20 points:

1. Market Size by Product Categories & Application 11. Demand Analysis (Revenue & Volume) 2. Market trends & Relevant Market Data 12. Country level Analysis 3. Manufacturer Landscape 13. Competitor Analysis 4. Distributor Landscape 14. Market Shares Analysis 5. Pricing Analysis 15. Value Chain Analysis 6. Top 10 End user Analysis 16. Supply Chain Analysis 7. Product Benchmarking 17. Strategic Analysis 8. Product Developments 18. Current & Future Market Landscape Analysis 9. Mergers & Acquisition Analysis 19. Opportunity Analysis 10. Patent Analysis 20. Revenue and Volume Analysis

Frequently Asked Questions:

Q. Does IndustryARC publish country or application based reports in Citric Acid segment? Response: Yes, we do have separate reports as mentioned below: 1. Americas Citric Acid Market Share(2018-2023) 2. Europe Citric Acid Market Growth(2018-2023) 3. Asia Pacific Citric Acid Market Analysis(2018-2023)

Q. Does IndustryARC provide customized reports and charge additionally for limited customization? Response: Yes, we can customize the report by extracting data from our database of reports and annual subscription databases. We can provide the following free customization: 1. Increase the level of data in application or end user industry. 2. Increase the number of countries in geography chapter. 3. Find out market shares for other smaller companies or companies which are of interest to you. 4. Company profiles can be requested based on your interest. 5. Patent analysis, pricing, product analysis, product benchmarking, value and supply chain analysis can be requested for a country or end use segment.

Any other custom requirements can be discussed with our team, drop an e-mail to [email protected] to discuss more about our consulting services.

Media Contact:

Mr. Venkat Reddy Sales Manager Email 1: [email protected] Or Email 2: [email protected] Contact Sales: +1-614-588-8538 (Ext-101)

About IndustryARC: IndustryARC is a Research and Consulting Firm that publishes more than 500 reports annually, in various industries such as Agriculture, Automotive, Automation & Instrumentation, Chemicals and Materials, Energy and Power, Electronics, Food & Beverages, Information Technology, Life sciences & Healthcare.

#citric acid\#citric acid uses #citric acid sale #citric acid growth

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prasanththampi · 6 years

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BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT XIBMS EXAM ANSWER PROVIDED

CONTACT: DR. PRASANTH MBA PH.D. DME MOBILE / WHATSAPP: +91 9924764558 OR +91 9447965521 EMAIL: [email protected] WEBSITE: www.casestudyandprojectreports.com

Business Environment

Note: Attempt any five questions (question no. 1. is compulsory)

1. Attempt any four of the following questions:

(a) Explain the relevance of ecological issues to business environment.

(b) Analyze the social responsibility of business towards employees.

(d) Describe the basic instruments of fiscal policy in lndia

(e) State various measures for the prevention and settlement of the industrial disputes.

(f) Explain the thrust areas of the new economic policy.

2. Discuss how does the environment acts as a stimulant to business.Analyse why business often does little for physical environment preservation despite the fact that it is significant for business activity.

3. Analyze the fourfold role of the government in business. Also explain in what respects the role of government has been redefined in lndia during the 1990s.

4. "The Industrial Policy of 1991 makes a clear departure from the Industrial Policy of 1956" Comment.

5. Discuss the various forms of foreign capital flows. Do you think entering o{ MNC's in less developed countries is risky ?

6. Describe the recent export promotion measures of the Government of India.

7. Write short notes on any two of the following:

(a) Political and legal environment of business

(b) Nehru - Mahalanobis strategy of development

(d) Merits of globalisation from the point of view of India’s s economic development

Business Strategy

MARKS: 100

Note:

1. Question No.1 carries 20 Marks and is compulsory.

2. Attempt any five questions from question from the rest. Each of these carry 16 marks.

Q.1 Write short notes on any FOUR of the following:-

1.Core Competencies and Distinctive Competencies

2.Real value of SWOT analysis

3.Market Development Strategies

4.Vision and Mission

5.Benefits of Strategic Approach

6. Vertical Integration

Q.2 Describe Porter's five forces model.

Q.3 What is a differentiation strategy? In which circumstances do you think company should adopt such strategies? Explain with relevant examples.

Q.4 (a)What is benchmarking? To what extent is relevant to industry in decline phase?

(b)"Vertical Integration is an outdated strategic approach" Comment.

Q.5 What are various ways to achieve cost advantage and gain cost leadership position?

Q.6 Between the GE Multifactor Matrix & the BCG Matrix, which one do you think is superior tool and why?

Q.7 What strategic options a firm in a corrugated box manufacturing industry could pursue to be successful. (Hint: A corrugated box manufacturing is typically a highly fragmented industry)

Q.8 Would you agree with the following statement?

"Tata Nano is the best value for money proposition today in the entry level segment of the light passenger vehicles".

In case you agree or otherwise, please state the reasons.

Q.9 Globalization is the single most important factor, which has affected Cement Industry during the past 3 to 5 years. Do you agree with this statement? Why?

Q.10 Describe Ansoff's product market expansion matrix and describe various strategic approaches emanating there from.

Corporate Law

Maximum Marks: 100

Note: Answer any Five questions. All questions carry equal marks.

1."All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts." Discuss this statement in light of the essential elements of a valid contract. Also mention briefly the different kinds of agreements under the India Contract Act, 1872.

2. Discuss, what are the rights, liabilities and disabilities of a minor as per the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.

3. What do you understand by implied warranties and conditions of sale according to the sale of Goods Act, 1930?

4. Differentiate between lay-off and retrenchment according to the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

5. Give the provisions related to safety as given in the Factories Act, 1948.

6. What are the characteristics or essential features of a company and briefly mention the types of companies.

7. What do you understand by electronic governance and what are the attributes of electronic records as mentioned in the Information Technology Act, 2000.

8. Discuss the concept of free consent and misrepresentation as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

9. Distinguish between private and public company. What are the special privileges of a private company over public company according to Companies Act, 1956?

10. Write short notes on any two of the following:

(a) Cyber regulation

(b) Industrial Dispute

(d) Voidable contracts.

Financial Management

Total Marks- 80

1. This paper contains 8 questions divided in two parts.

2. Part A is compulsory.

3. In Part B (Questions 2 to 8), attempt any 5 questions out of 7. Attempt all parts of the questions chosen.

4. The marks assigned to each question are shown at the end of each question in square brackets.

5. Answer all questions in serial order.

6. The student is required to attempt the question paper in English medium only.

PART – A Q1.

a. Define Accounting.

b. Define Journal.

c. Define Ledger.

d. What is meant by Fund flow statement?

e. What is Standard Costing?

f. What is meant by Zero Based Budgeting?

g. What is Decision –making?

h. Define CVP Analysis.

i. What is meant by Product pricing Method?

j. What is Transfer Pricing? (10x3=30)

PART – B ( 5 X 10 =50)

Q2. What is Trial Balance? Explain in detail the errors which cannot be located by Trial Balance.

Q3. What is Cash book? Explain the Kinds of Cash book in detail.

Q4. What is Variance Analysis? Explain briefly various Material Variances.

Q5. Explain the following

(a) P/V Ration

(b) Break Even Analysis

Q6. What is meant by Cash Flow statement? How cash flow statement will be prepared As per AS-3?

Q7. What is meant by budgetary control? What are the limitations of Budgetary Control?

Q8. What is Responsibility Accounting? Explain the different Centers of Responsibility Accounting.

Xaviers Institute of Business Management Studies

Human Resource Management

(i) There are three Sections A and B and C.

(ii) Attempt any three questions each from Section A and B. All questions carry 10 marks each.

(iii) Section C is compulsory for all and carries 40 marks.

SECTION A

1. Define and differentiate between Job Analysis, Job Description and Job Evaluation. Select an appropriate job evaluation method and create a plan for evaluating jobs of scientists in different grades.

2. Discuss the role of indoctrination in organizations. How can Performance Appraisal, and Training and Development be made an integral part of Human Resource Planning? Discuss.

3. Discuss the scope of Human Resource Audit. While auditing Reward systems for employees in a manufacturing organization, which factors should be taken into account and why? Explain with suitable examples.

4. Define and discuss the need for Human Resource Planning in an organization. Briefly discuss various approaches to HRP

5. Write short notes on any three of the following:

(a) Training methods

(b) Value determinants of HRP

(d) Labour Market Behavior

(e) Promotion and Reward Policies

SECTION B

1. Define and discuss the objectives of Human Resource Planning at organizational level. How does it help in determining and evaluating future organizational capabilities, needs and anticipated problems? Explain with suitable examples.

2. Define and describe Job Analysis. Briefly discuss several methods in which information about a job is collected and evaluated.

3. What is the purpose and process of recruitment function? Discuss various methods of sourcing manpower.

4. How is monetary value assigned to different dimensions of Human Resources costs, investments, and worth of the employees? Briefly explain Cost and Economic value approaches of measurement.

5. Write short notes on any three of the following :

(a) MBO

(b) Succession Planning

(d) Job Evaluation

(e) H.R. Inventory

SECTION C

1. Quality control Department

Read the case given below and answer the questions given at the end.

Mr. Kapil Kumar and Mr. Abbas Ali were working in a scooter manufacturing public sector industry as Senior Quality Control Engineers in 1988. One post of Deputy Chief Quality Controller has fallen vacant due to the retirement of the incumbent and the management decided to recruit a qualified, knowledgeable and experienced professional from outside so that the present quality standard may be improved thus ensuring better marketability of their scooters in the face of stiff competition. Mr. Kapil Kumar, who was a mechanical engineer with about 15 years experience in the Quality Control Department dealing with mopeds and scooters, could have been promoted to fill the post on the basis of seniority. However, the management was looking for a graduate in statistics with experience in latest Quality Control (QC) techniques like statistical quality control, quality assurance and other related areas rather than a mechanical or automobile engineer with the routine experience in quality control. As such instead of promoting Kapil Kumar, the management advertised for the post of Deputy Chief Quality Controller - since as per company rules it was DR (Direct Recruitment) vacancy also.

Selection of Outsider

Out of the applications received in response to the advertisement, six candidates were called for interview including the two internal candidates, Mr. Kapil Kumar and Mr. Abbas Ali. The person selected was an outsider, one Mr. Ratnam, who had over 12 years experience SQC, quality assurance etc., in the two-wheeler private manufacturing industry. Mr. Ratnam joined within 2 months time expecting that in his new position he would be the main controller for quality. However, after joining the organization he came to know that he would be the second senior most person in the hierarchy for controlling the quality and would be reporting to one, Kirpal Sing,. The Chief for Quality Controls. Mr. Kirpal Singh had come up to this post by seniority and was basically a diploma holder in automobile engineering. He had to his credit about 28 years of industrial experience, out of which 20 years were spent in Quality Control Department of two industries. He joined the present organization in its Quality Control Department and had 17 years experience in the organization and was due for retirement within the next 2 or 3 years. On learning about the retirement time of Mr. Kirpal Singh, Mt. Ratnam had the consolation that he would be able to take up the position of 'Chief Controller of Quality' very soon.

Interference from Top

Ratnam could not put forth many good suggestions (for quality control) because of the interference and direct supervision of Kirpal Singh. He, however, could pick up a good deal of knowledge about the working of the company, the nature-and tendency of different production department heads particularly with regard to care for quality, organization for 'QC' in the company, the various components required for assembly of the company's two-wheeler scooter and the expected quality standards, drawback in the present system of quality controls. etc.

Right from the time the advertisement for the selection of Deputy Chief Quality Controller appeared, the O.A. (Officers Association) of the organization had been pressing the management to consider the case of Kapil Kumar for promotion to the above post based on his seniority in the organization.

Meanwhile, the management obtained a license in 1989 for producing Three-Wheeler Autos. As a result of this and the pressure from O.A., Ratnam was transferred to look after the Quality Control Department at the company's new Three-Wheeler plant, whereas Kapil Kumar was promoted as Deputy Chief Quality Controller in the present two-wheeler scooter plant in 1990 (after creating one additional post of Deputy Chief Quality Controller for the new Project).

In 1991, the State Government, which controlled the company in question, changed the Managing Director. During the regime of this new Managing Director, Kapil Kumar was promoted as Chief (Quality Controls) next year, when Kirpal Singh retired. This decision was based on the recommendations of Kirpal Singh and partly attributed to pressure from O.A., for further promotion of Kapil Kumar based on his vast experience in the Quality Control function of this industry. Abbas Ali rose to the position held earlier by Kapil Kumar.

Allotment of Company Quarters

The Company had its own township near the factory. Its quarter allotment scheme was based on the length of service, i.e., date of joining. Ratnam had asked for a suitable quarter at the time of interview and was thus allotted a tile quarter meant for the Senior Engineer's cadre. He learnt about this, after occupying the quarter. Ratnam asked for a change of Quarter - preferably a RCC-roof quarter, - but his request was turned down, since he had put in only few months of service whereas many others senior to him, on the beds of their longer length of service in the Company (having over 10 years service), were staying in tiled-roof quarters and were awaiting a chance for a RCC-roof quarter. Kapil Kumar and Abbas Ali were residing in RCC-roof quarters. Soon after Kapil Kumar's promotion to the post of Chief (Quality Controls), he was allotted a bungalow.

The management's decision in this case must be viewed in the context of the downtrend in the demand for scooters and three-wheeler autos during 1993 following complaints from dealers about the deteriorating quality of components as also their short life. Notably the complaints had risen ten-fold in that year as compared to that in 1988.

Questions

(a) Was the management justified in taking a decision to recruit a qualified and experienced person from outside as Deputy Chief Quality Controller?

(b) Was it in the interest of the organization to transfer Ratnam to the new auto-wheeler plant and promote Kapil Kumar? What could have prompted the management to take this decision?

(c) How do you view the role of O.A.s in supporting only the local and internal candidates and overlooking the interests of direct recruits even when they were family members of the Association, particularly at a time, when the industry needed professionally qualified persons to fill key technical posts?

(d) How would you react to the management's scheme for quarter allotment and why?

2. Pearl Engineering

Pearl Engineering Company was a large heavy-engineering unit. It attached great importance to the recruitment and training of its senior supervisors. Apart from selecting them from within the organization, the company recruited, every. Alternate year, about ten young engineering graduates and offered them training for a period of two years, before they were appointed as senior supervisors. Such appointments were made to about 40 per cent of the vacancies of senior supervisors that occurred in the organization. This was considered necessary by management as a planned programme of imparting vitality to the organization. Besides, many of the old-timers, who had risen from the ranks, did not possess the necessary academic background with the result that they could not keep pace with the technological changes. Management also believed that in the rapidly changing conditions of industry, a bank of technically competent supervisors played a pivotal role, besides serving as a pool from which to select future departmental managers.

Engineering Graduates were selected from amongst those who applied in response to an all-India advertisement. For the selection of one engineer, on an average, eight applicants were called for interview. A selection committee consisting of the General Manager, the Production Manager, the Personnel Manager and the Training Officer interviewed and selected the candidates. The selection interview was preceded by a written test and only those who secured 40 per cent marks qualified for interview.

The engineers thus selected had to undergo a two year intensive theoretical and practical training. A well-staffed and equipped Training Institute was directly responsible for the training of the graduate engineers, besides training trade apprentices and operatives required by the company. Lectures on theoretical subjects were given at the Training Institute and practical training was imparted in all the works departments under the guidance of qualified and experienced instructors. A few lectures by senior officers of the company were also arranged to acquaint them with the company policies on different matters. During the last quarter of their two-year training programme they were deputed to work fulltime to familiarize themselves with the conditions in departments where they were to be absorbed eventually.

On successful completion of training, the graduate engineers were offered appointments, depending on their performance and aptitude as revealed during training. On placement in the work departments, however, most of them faced some difficulty or the other.

According to management, some of the heads of departments, who were themselves not qualified engineers, did not have sufficient confidence in these younger men. They preferred the subordinates who came up from the ranks to hold positions of responsibility. A few discredited them saying that it would take years before these youngsters could pick up the job. Besides, some of the employees, whose promotional opportunities were adversely affected by the placement of graduate engineers, tried their best to run down the latter as a class, sometimes working on the group feelings of the workers. Some of the supervisors who were not graduate engineers also spoke derisively of them as "the blue-eyed boys" of the organization. Management knew that many of the graduate engineers were not utilized according to their capacity or training, nor was any attempt made to test or develop their potentialities. They also knew that many of the graduate engineers were, therefore, dissatisfied with their work life. Some of them who did not get equal promotional opportunities as their colleagues placed in other departments, were looking for better jobs elsewhere.

On the other hand, according to management, the young graduate engineers were themselves partly responsible for the hostile attitude of others in the organization. Some of them failed to appreciate that a newcomer invited hostility in the beginning and it took time before he was accepted as a member of the work-group. They did not realize that they would be fully productive only after gaining about five to seven years experience in the organization. A few thought that they belonged to a superior cadre and threw their weight around. They did not bother to understand and appreciate the problems of the rank-and-file of employees who worked under them.

In spite of these drawback, the General Manager of the company felt that these men were a set of disciplined supervisors. They had a sense of pride in their profession, and with the extensive training they had received, they would be able to take up any responsible position in the organization in course of time.

The General Manager could not allow the situation to continue especially when it was a difficult and costly process to recruit and train young engineering graduates of the requisite type and caliber. He knew that the prosperity of the company, to a large extent, depended on these young men. In addition, a large number of lucrative employment opportunities were available to these young engineers elsewhere and there was a systematic raid on them, He, therefore, called a meeting of all heads of departments to review the situation.

Questions:

(i) Identify the issues related to manpower planning as evident in the case.

(ii) Discuss the strategies to tackle the percentage of internal promotion at the organizational level.

(iii)What type of additional training programmes should be imparted for direct entrants?

(iv) Suppose you are the head of the personnel division. What would be your suggestions in the meeting - Which has been called by the General Manager?

Information Technology

SECTION - A ( 5 × 3 = 15)

Answer any FIVE questions.

All questions carry equal marks.

1. Describe B2B.

2. What do you mean by services?

3. Need for ERP.

4. Describe B2C.

5. What is E.RC Diagram?

6. What do you mean by system specification?

7. Describe database.

8. Define knowledge management.

SECTION - B (3 × 5 = 15)

Answer any THREE questions.

All questions carry equal marks.

1. What a note on operating systems.

2. Describe system specification with example.

3. How to choose a right package of ERP?

4. Write a note on business process re-engineering.

SECTION - C (2 × 5 = 10)

Answer any TWO questions.

All questions carry equal marks.

1. Explain database management with example.

2. Explain the phases of moving the company from products to services.

3. Explain business process re-engineering and design.

4. Explain the implications of on-line shopping in new economy.

SECTION - D (12 × 5 = 60)

Answer any FIVE questions.

1. (a) Write short notes on Communication System.

(b) Explain the elements of a computer and communication System.

2. (a) Discuss application software.

(b) What is the use of interface and other basic features? Explain.

3. (a) Write short notes on internet web browsers.

(b) Explain in detail about desktop accessories.

4. (a) Explain in detail about cable modems.

(b) Write short notes on cyberethics.

5. (a) How to use a micro computer for Communication? Explain.

(b) Discuss about the facilities of multimedia.

6. (a) What are the types of database organization? Explain.

(b) Explain secondary storage devices.

7. (a) Write short notes on accuracy and privacy of using database.

(b) List out the different phases of system analysis and design and explain.

8. (a) Explain object oriented and visual programming.

(b) Write the features of HTML and XML.

9.(a) Explain the characteristics of information.

(b) Explain the issues of IT management.

10.(a) Explain the role of corporate strategy in IT.

(b) Explain the role of IT in international business.

11.(a) Explain the working of processor in detail.

(b) Differentiate CISC versus RISC.

12.(a) What is an operating system? Explain the function of OS.

(b) Give the objectives of programming languages.

13.(a) Discuss in detail any one processing package.

(b) What is a Data base management system? Explain.

14.(a) Explain client server model in detail.

(b) Explain the strategies for acquiring systems and services.

15.(a) Explain transmission modes and transmission protocols.

(b) Discuss various types of networks with examples.

16.(a) Discuss LAN Architecture model.

(b) Explain the concept of E-Com. Give some applications of E-Com in Business.

MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEMS

Marks: 80

SECTION A

Answer any 4 sub Questions. Each question carries five marks. (4X5= 20)

(a) What is Information system?

(b) What is prototyping?

(d) What is hyperlink?

(e) What is knowledge management system?

SECTION B

Answer any five Questions. Each question carries 6 marks. (5x6= 30)

2. What is EIS? Explain its advantages and disadvantages.

3. What are the major challenges involved in building, operating and maintaining information system?

4. How does an organisation impact in IT? Explain.

5. Explain the four stage model of IT planning.

6. What are the steps involved in implementation and evaluation of a system?

7. What is DSS? What are the models? Explain its components.

8. What are the benefits and application of content management?

SECTION C

Answer any three Questions. Each question carries 10 marks. (3x10= 30)

9. What are the types of IS? Explain each of them.

10. Explain a) ERP b) SCM.

11. What are recent developments in MIS area?

12. How do you manage the multimedia content?

13. What are the ethics in IT?

14. Explain the features and characteristics of objects in object oriented analysis and design.

Managerial Economics

Total Marks - 80

Answer any FIVE Questions. All Questions carry equal marks

1. Managerial Economics is the application of Economic Theory to business management. Discuss. [16]

2. What are the needs for demand forecasting? Explain the various steps involved in demand forecasting. [16]

3. Define production function. How is it helpful while taking output decisions? [16]

4. (a) ' The monopolist represents one man industry’? Comment and discuss how equilibrium position can be attained by the monopolist.

(b) Use appropriate diagrams to supplement your answer. [10+6]

5. (a) Define partnership and explain its salient features and limitations.

(b) What are the qualities of a good partner? [8+8]

6. What are the components of working capital? Explain each of them. [16]

7. Give a brief account on the important records of Accounting under Double entry system and discuss briefly the scope of each. [16]

8. (a) From the information (given with attachments), calculate [16]

i. Debt Equity ratio

ii. Current ratio

(b) Calculate Interest Coverage ratio from the information (given with attachments) .

OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT

Maximum Marks: 100

Note: Attempt any five questions. All questions carry equal marks. Assume any missing data suitably.

1. (a) Draw a systems view diagram of any service organization of your choice. Identify its various components. Explain its interdisciplinary nature. 10

(b) What are the major characteristics of a Production system? Discuss some of its upcoming issues that provide economies in production and efficiency in the performance of the system. 10

2. (a) Explain with examples, how the TQM concept can integrate design engineering, manufacturing and service. 10

(b) What are process capability studies ? Explain the process capability index with applications to a real life example. 10

3. (a) Compare traditional process planning with Computer Aided Process Planning (CAPP). Also explain a generative CAPP system. 10

(b) Explain the objectives of Total Productive maintenance. Give its importance. Also comment on the concept of TPM promotion. 10

4. (a) Why is forecasting required in operations management ? Discuss the concept of forecast error as applied to different conditions. 10

(b) How are quantitative models of forecasting different from qualitative models ? Discuss in detail time-series model as used for forecasting. 10

5. (a) What is facility planning ? Explain with examples different types of layouts as used in manufacturing organisations. 10

(b) Discuss work measurement as a process to establish task time. Explain the various techniques for developing time standards. 10

6. (a) Explain just in time manufacturing with the help of examples. Discuss its advantages and disadvantages. 10

(b) For an independent demand inventory model, derive the equation for Economic Order Quantity. List all assumptions. 10

7. Write short notes on any four of the following: 4x5=20

(a) OPT

(b) Break even analysis

(d) Kanban system

(e) Line of Balance for Production Control

(f) Purpose of aggregate plans.

Xaviers Institute of Business Management Studies

Organizational Behaviour

Max. Marks: 80

Answer any 8 questions. All questions carry equal marks

1. As a manager how do you improve workers perception in the organization?

2. Explain the factors affecting individual differences.

3. Write a short note on Hawthorne studies.

4. Discuss the need for studying OB.

5. Briefly explain defensive mechanisms.

6. Explain the factors influencing individuals’ personality development.

7. Explain two factor theory of motivation.

8. How do you create and sustain organizational culture.

9. Explain the Managerial grid leadership style of Blake and Mouton.

10. Explain the various sources of attitudes formation.

11. What is self concept? How you defend yourself from various environment problems.

•••

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tremendousbelievervoid-blog · 7 years

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BUS 335 Week 9 Quiz– Strayer New

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Quiz 8 Chapter 11 and 12

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Practical significance is the sign of a correlation coefficient.  True False

2. Validity refers to the relationship between predictor and criterion scores.  True False

3. A useful predictor is one where the sign of the relationship is consistent with the logic or theory behind the predictor.  True False

4. Statistical significance is stated as a probability and indicates a given predictor's chances of yielding similar validity coefficients with different sets of applicants.  True False

5. A significance level of p<0.05 means that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not.  True False

6. In general, the greater the correlation of a given predictor with other predictors of a criterion, the more useful the predictor will be.  True False

7. The usefulness of a predictor is determined by the value it adds to the prediction of job success above and beyond the forecasting powers of other available predictors.  True False

8. There are no cases in which a predictor has high validity and high adverse impact.  True False

9. All other things being equal, if a selection specialist must decide between two predictors, the one that causes the least adverse impact would be the best choice.  True False

10. Utility refers to the expected gains to be derived from using a predictor.  True False

11. The selection ratio is the number of people hired divided by the number of applicants, and it is desirable that this ratio be high.  True False

12. It is desirable that the denominator of a selection ratio be small.  True False

13. The base rate is the number of hirees divided by the number of employees.  True False

14. When deciding whether or not to use a new predictor, the validity coefficient, the base rate, and the selection ratio should be considered in combination, not independently.  True False

15. The most fundamental concern regarding utility analysis is that it lacks realism.  True False

16. If you are using the "economic gains formula," and you have just increased the validity of your selection procedures with no change in cost, your economic gain value should increase.  True False

17. The most difficult factor in the economic gain formula to estimate is "cost per applicant".  True False

18. Utility analysis models do not take factors like EEO/AA concerns into account.  True False

19. Research suggests that managers prefer the results of utility analysis to the presentation of simple validity coefficients.  True False

20. Utility decreases as the number of valid predictors used in the selection process increases.  True False

21. If you are evaluating the usefulness of a given predictor in predicting job success, and you are interested in the value the predictor adds to the prediction of job success, you want to know the predictor's ________.  A. validity coefficient B. practical significance C. sign D. statistical significance

22. When HR specialists state that a new predictor "adds value" to the prediction of job success, they mean that _____.  A. the predictor provides economic benefit to prediction B. the predictor has a high validity coefficient C. the predictor adds to the prediction of job success over and beyond the forecasting powers of current predictors D. the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, thus increasing efficiency

23. A significance level of p<0.05 in a validity study means _________.  A. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not B. that there are 5 chances in 100 of concluding that there is not a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is C. that the practical significance of the observed relationship is very low D. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 that a predictor has adverse impact

24. Validity refers to __________.  A. the number of individuals hired by a predictor B. the number of individuals hired divided by the number of applicants C. the relationship between predictor and criterion scores D. the inverse of the adverse impact ratio

25. If an HR specialist is assessing the usefulness of predictors in forecasting job success, and it is noted that a given predictor has both high validity and high adverse impact, the HR specialist should conclude ___________.  A. this can never happen and the method of calculating validity must be incorrect B. this is a common circumstance and the predictor should be used C. if the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, this will compensate for adverse impact D. legal problems could result and alternative predictors should be sought

26. Under which circumstances is "hiring success gain" likely to be optimal?  A. Low selection ratio, low base rate, high validity B. High selection ratio, high base rate, high validity C. High selection ratio, low base rate, high validity D. High selection ratio, low base rate, low validity

27. Which of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain formula?  A. Average tenure of employees. B. Number of applicants. C. Dollar value of job performance. D. Cost per applicant.

28. Taylor-Russell tables are an effective decision making tool in that they ________.  A. allow for calculating selection ratios B. enable HR specialists to calculate utility ratios C. allow simultaneous consideration of a predictor's base rate, selection ratio, and validity D. help to increase validity coefficients to more acceptable levels

29. Economic gain formulas provide the HR specialist with an estimate of ______.  A. the economic gain derived from using a predictor versus random selection B. the economic gain from using random selection C. the economic gain of the standard deviation of job performance D. the economic gain of the validity coefficient

30. A compensatory approach to selection decisions means that applicants must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process.  True False

31. The clinical prediction method of determining an applicant's score on a job assessment instrument relies on adding the individual predictor scores together to arrive at the applicant's total score.  True False

32. The "unit weighting" method of determining the score of a job applicant on an assessment instrument considers the relative importance of each predictor.  True False

33. Multiple regression will be more precise than unit weighting if there is a small number of predictors, low correlations between predictors, and a large sample.  True False

34. The multiple hurdles method of setting a passing score for a job predictor would be a cost efficient method for making decisions about hiring.  True False

35. The _________ approach means that selection decisions means that scores on one predictor can make up for low scores on another.  A. multiple hurdles B. Markov process C. compensatory model D. none of the above

36. The _________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on the expert judgment of the manager.  A. multiple regression B. clinical prediction C. unit weighting D. none of the above

37. The _________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on assigning weights by statistical procedures and then adding predictor scores together.  A. multiple regression B. clinical prediction C. unit weighting D. none of the above

38. The _________ approach means that an applicant must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process.  A. multiple hurdles B. Markov process C. compensatory model D. none of the above

39. In establishing procedures for setting cutoff scores, organizations should stress the job-relatedness of the assessment procedure and de-emphasize validity.  True False

40. In assessing cutoff scores, a "false negative" is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired.  True False

41. In assessing cutoff scores, a "false positive" is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired.  True False

42. The minimum competency method involves setting the cut score on the basis of the minimum qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job.  True False

43. In top down hiring, all individuals who are above a minimum competency point are hired.  True False

44. There is little evidence that individuals who perceive themselves to be overqualified are less satisfied or have higher intentions to turnover.  True False

45. The law prohibits using different norms for test scores of minority and majority groups.  True False

46. Banding is a procedure whereby applicants who score in different score ranges or bands are considered to have scored equivalently.  True False

47. Applicants react positively when banding is associated with affirmative action.  True False

48. An applicant who is hired but does not perform successfully is a ______________.  A. true positive B. false positive C. true negative D. false negative

49. An applicant who is not hired but who would have performed successfully if hired is a ______________.  A. true positive B. false positive C. true negative D. false negative

50. If a cutoff score is lowered, the effect of this on hiring results is likely to be ______________.  A. fewer false negatives only B. both fewer false negatives and more true positives C. fewer false negatives and fewer false positives D. more false negatives and more false positives

51. If a cutoff scores is set based on the qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job, it is most likely the ______ method of determining cut scores.  A. top-down B. criterion-related C. minimum competency D. banding

52. When applicants who score within a certain score range are considered to have scored equivalently ________.  A. top-down B. criterion-related C. minimum competency D. banding

53. Which of the following statements is a useful guideline for setting cutoff scores?  A. Cutoff scores should be consistent with normal expectations of acceptable proficiency within the workforce. B. The job relatedness of assessment procedures should not be correlated with validity. C. A single "best" method of setting cutoff scores should be identified. D. Cutoff scores should be set to maximize true positives.

54. When random selection is used to select the finalist to whom a job offer will be made, discretionary assessment methods should be used.  True False

55. In ranking finalists are ordered from the most desirable to the least desirable based on the results of discretionary assessments.  True False

56. One disadvantage of ranking is that it doesn't provide a clear suggestion of the order in which candidates should be offered jobs.  True False

57. Ongoing hiring is most common in organizations with very high turnover rates.  True False

58. When using ___________, each finalist has an equal chance of being selected.  A. ranking B. random selection C. clinical prediction D. grouping

59. When using ___________, finalists are ordered from the most desirable to the least desirable based on results of discretionary assessments.  A. ranking B. random selection C. clinical prediction D. grouping

60. When using ___________, finalists are banded together into rank-ordered categories.  A. ranking B. random selection C. clinical prediction D. grouping

61. In general, HR specialists should orchestrate the development of staffing policies and procedures for all departments, but play a secondary, or supporting role in the ultimate decision to hire in areas outside of the HR department.  True False

62. Since line managers are not usually technical experts in staffing processes, their input comes to play only in regard to hiring decisions.  True False

63. In terms of who should participate in selection decision making (i.e., HR professionals vs. line managers), HR professionals would be least likely to ________.  A. make the hiring decision B. establish selection procedures C. ensure relevant laws and regulations are being followed D. represent the interests of employees to management

64. In which of the following assessment procedures is the participation of line managers most needed?  A. initial assessment B. substantive methods C. discretionary methods D. background investigations

65. Employees are most likely to be involved in hiring decision making if they are organized in __________.  A. solo work B. functional harmony C. teams D. none of the above

66. If adverse impact occurs because of certain selection procedures, these procedures may be justified under UGESP through validity studies.  True False

67. The two options the UGESP recommends for minimizing adverse impact are use of within-group norming and banding.  True False

68. The law suggests that unless the organization is under a formal AAP, protected characteristics should not be considered in selection decision making.  True False

69. If an organization wishes to comply with the law and still increase the diversity of its workforce, it should ___________.  A. de-emphasize selection based on KSAOs B. use recruitment as a tool for attracting a more diverse and qualified applicant pool C. use clinical and other subjective prediction methods D. all of the above

70. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures establish guidelines for record-keeping ___________.  A. of applicants' sex B. of applicants' race C. for major job categories D. all of the above

Chapter 12

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. The three elements required for a contract to be legally binding are: offer, acceptance, and written documentation.  True False

2. It is very important for an organization to know, in advance, whether an individual will be classified as either an employee or an independent contractor.  True False

3. A third party is someone other than the employer or the offer receiver who speaks on their behalf in the establishment or modification of employment contracts.  True False

4. The law is relatively indifferent between the use of written contracts and the use of oral contracts.  True False

5. Statements in employee handbooks can be construed as employment contracts.  True False

6. The "one year rule" ensures that oral agreements for time intervals greater than one year are legally enforceable.  True False

7. If a letter of acceptance says an employee needs to work on weekends, but the employer makes an oral promise that the employee will not have to work on weekends, the oral statement could be legally binding.  True False

8. If a co-worker promises a prospective employee overtime hours while visiting the prospective employee in his/her home, this promised "term" of the employment would likely be legally enforceable.  True False

9. A disclaimer on an employment application blank stating that the employee can be terminated "with or without cause" and "with or without notice" is legally enforceable.  True False

10. It is extremely important for organizations to be sure to keep promises that they make to job applicants in order to avoid subsequent lawsuits.  True False

11. In order for "promissory estoppel" claim to apply when a job offer is made, the offer recipient must suffer a detrimental effect.  True False

12. Which of the following elements are required for a contract to be legally binding and enforceable?  A. offer B. acceptance C. consideration D. all of the above

13. Consideration in a contract entails __________.  A. evidence that both parties agree to the terms as offered B. a polite exchange of information C. the exchange of something of value between the parties to the contract D. none of the above

14. Which of the following statements about written contracts is false?  A. The law favors written contracts over oral contracts. B. A statement on a job application blank could be construed as a written contract. C. Written statements in employee handbooks that are unintended as contracts cannot be construed as contracts. D. Internal job posting notices can be construed as written job contracts.

15. Which of the following circumstances makes it less likely an oral statement about weekend work would be legally enforceable as a contract term?  A. The statement was made in the workplace. B. The statement is not supported by a written policy. C. The statement was made by an organizational manager. D. The statement was a specific one.

16. Which of the following statements about disclaimers is false?  A. They can appear in almost any written documents made available to job applicants or employees. B. They can be used to limit employee rights. C. They are never oral. D. Their receipt by employees should be acknowledged in some formal way.

17. In order to improve the chances of winning a law suit based on "promissory estoppel," the most important point the plaintiff must demonstrate is that ____.  A. the promise was accurate B. the promise was made in good faith C. the defendant reneged on the promise D. the promise was withdrawn, resulting in a detrimental effect

18. Upon acceptance, a formal job offer in which consideration is provided to employees becomes a contract.  True False

19. Terms and conditions of employment offered by employers unintentionally are not legally enforceable.  True False

20. With a tight labor market, the organization will be in a position to provide lower cost offers.  True False

21. The strategic approach to job offers involves considering the total package of extrinsic and intrinsic rewards that the offered job will provide to the finalist.  True False

22. An organization should provide a definite starting date for an offer, or else the acceptance and consideration of the offer occur whenever the new hire actually begins to work.  True False

23. Most organizations provide some form of specific "just cause" guarantee regarding terminations during their job offers.  True False

24. One reason organizations often opt out of flat pay rates in favor of differential pay rates, is because job applicants are similar in KSAO quality.  True False

25. The use of short-term incentive pay, like commissions or production bonuses, is common among private sector organizations.  True False

26. Hiring bonuses tend to enhance employee performance motivation.  True False

27. The least common form of long-term variable pay in the private sector is the cost of living adjustment.  True False

28. Hiring bonuses can be problematic because recipients of these bonuses might take the bonus and then quit soon after.  True False

29. A hot skill premium is a permanent pay premium added to the regular base pay to account for market escalation in pay for certain skills in extreme shortage.  True False

30. Non-compete agreements that would keep employees from indefinitely practicing their trade or profession are not enforceable.  True False

31. A non-compete agreement restricts a departing employee from competing against the organization.  True False

32. Golden handcuff agreements legally bar employees from quitting a job for a specific period of time.  True False

33. Written job offers should normally contain terms of acceptance that require acceptance without revision.    True False

34. Which of the following is likely to be a contingency related to a job offer?  A. satisfactory reference checks B. job salary C. job benefits D. job vacation privileges

35. Which of the following is not a choice involved in a strategic approach to job offers?  A. determining a compelling offer the finalists will find difficult to turn down B. deciding which short and long term pressures to respond to in an offer C. deciding on specific pay levels that will apply to all individuals D. determine whether there will be a "standard offer" for all finalists or whether "enhanced offers" will be possible for some finalists

36. A _____ contract provides certainty to both the new hire and the organization regarding the length of the employment relationship.  A. variable premium B. fixed annuity C. fixed-term D. latent variable

37. Flat pay rate job offers are least appropriate for _______.  A. situations where applicants have very dissimilar KSAOs B. jobs with a plentiful supply of applicants C. situations where management desires to avoid inequities in starting pay among new employees D. jobs where applicants have KSAOs of similar quality

38. Terms and conditions that the organization states the employee is entitled to upon departure from the organization constitute _________.  A. pay rates B. health benefits C. severance packages D. life insurance

39. Long-term variable pay plans provide employees ownership opportunities as the value of the organization increases are applicable only in the ____.  A. public sector B. private sector C. technology sector D. none of the above

40. Which of the following is true regarding long-term variable pay?  A. Stock options qualify for special tax treatment for employees. B. Small public organizations are more likely to provide stock options than large public organizations. C. Stock options guarantee a fixed rate of return on investment. D. None of the above

41. Studies of job seekers graduating from hotel administration and engineering programs showed that job offers involving _____ are seen more favorably.  A. pay contingent on performance B. pay raises based on group performance C. a flexible benefits package D. pay pegged to skills

42. A _____ is a right to purchase a share of stock for a predetermined price at a later date.  A. stock option B. profit share C. realized dividend D. mutual fund

43. A temporary pay premium added to the regular base pay of an employee to account for a temporary market escalation in pay for certain skills in extreme shortage is called a(n) ____________.  A. hot skill premium B. tight labor market adjustment C. key skill premium D. none of the above

44. ______ prohibit current or departing employees from the unauthorized use or disclosure of information during or after employment.  A. Non-compete agreements B. Retainers C. Confidentiality clauses D. Mixed-motive contracts

45. Non-compete agreements should be drafted in such a way that they cover ____.  A. high-value employees B. experienced employees C. all employees D. only managerial, technical, and scientific staff

46. Organizations can gauge the likely reactions of job applicants to job offers not only by conducting formal research, but also by gathering information about various preferences from the offer recipient during the actual recruitment/selection process.  True False

47. Access to typical salary information for various occupations or job titles is very hard to come by, especially for job seekers.  True False

48. Applicant dishonesty is a common problem as relates to the reporting of the applicant's current salary.  True False

49. A currently employed offer receiver normally incurs costs for leaving and will expect a "make whole" offer amounting to 20-30% of the offer receiver's current base pay.  True False

50. The lowball strategy will be especially effective for desperate or unknowledgeable employees.  True False

51. An advantage of the "competitive strategy" for negotiating initial job offers is that this strategy repeatedly yields acceptances from the highest quality (KSAOs) applicants.  True False

52. When job offer negotiating strategies are to be used as part of an aggressive EEO/AA recruitment program, the strategy most appropriate to be used in such a situation is the "competitive strategy."  True False

53. When rejecting job applicants, most organizations do so with a rejection message to the applicant that is short and vague in content.    True False

54. In using information about competitors to structure job offers, which of the following statements is not useful as a general guideline?  A. It makes a difference who the competitors are. B. Competitive offers should always be matched to ensure acceptance. C. Analysis of competitive advertisements should be performed in order to have the "market information" needed to prepare effective job offers. D. Trade associations should be consulted for competitive information whenever possible.

55. The most sensible approach for addressing the issue of applicant truthfulness would be to ________.  A. receive applicant information in good faith since the majority of applicants will be honest and it is not fair to inconvenience everyone with more verification because of a few "bad apples" B. treat applicants with trust and they will respond with honesty in most cases C. have applicants provide independent, third-party documentation of all job information provided on application blanks D. verify the applicant information provided that is deemed most vital

56. The most commonly negotiated element of a job offer is ___.  A. severance packages B. educational assistance C. salary D. paid time off

57. As a general rule concerning job offers, it can be said that __________.  A. "low ball" job offers are expensive to the organization B. "competitive" job offers have no important drawbacks C. "competitive" job offers tend to leave room to negotiate D. "competitive" offers usually stimulate the most positive reactions on the part of offer recipients

58. The sales approach to presenting a job offer has been adopted by many organizations because ________.  A. mechanical presentations of job offers have been proven not to work B. they apply to all situations C. they cost less than mechanical presentations D. they may increase the likelihood of bringing job offers to closure

59. Most rejection messages sent to applicants are _________.  A. specific in terms of the reason for the rejection B. not conveyed by formal means C. vague in content D. designed carefully to "soften the blow" of the rejection

60. Which of the following statements about reneging on job offers is false?  A. reneging is often caused by sudden changes in circumstances, such as a change in health status B. there are substantial legal concerns about reneging C. most employers feel the level of reneging has increased dramatically in recent years D. solid evidence on reneging and why it occurs is lacking

61. Orientation is likely to be more effective when newcomers have realistic information about job requirements and rewards before the job begins.  True False

62. Orientation should focus on the person/job match exclusively.  True False

63. Whereas orientation focuses on the initial and immediate aspects of newcomer adaptation, socialization emphasizes helping the newcomer fit into the job and organization over time.  True False

64. One way to improve employee socialization outcomes is to provide realistic requirement information regarding job requirements and rewards.  True False

65. Clarifying job requirements and knowledge of skills are the only demonstrated methods for consistently improving employee socialization.  True False

66. Research suggests that socialization programs are equally effective when conducted online relative to person-to-person.  True False

67. Effective orientation training should include __________.  A. sources of influence in the organization B. integrating the newcomer into the work unit and team C. conducting active mentoring for the newcomer D. all of the above

68. What is the relationship between orientation and socialization activities?  A. Orientation covers job content, socialization covers social content. B. Orientation is usually a small group activity, socialization is one on one. C. Orientation is typically an immediate activity for new hires, which overlaps with more long-term socialization. D. Orientation is formal, socialization is informal.

69. The goal(s) of the socialization process is(are) ___________.  A. to achieve an effective person/job match B. to achieve an effective person/organization match C. to help the newcomer fit into the job in the long-term D. all of the above are true

70. From the newcomer's perspective, likely components for inclusion in the socialization process include addressing _________.  A. performance proficiency B. organization goals and values C. politics D. all of the above are correct

71. Research has shown that ____ facilitates employee socialization to a new job.  A. clarifying job requirements and knowledge and skills to be acquired B. minimizing biasing contact from current co-workers C. providing a highly positive recruitment message regarding job requirements at rewards D. all of the above

72. The delivery of newcomer socialization should be the responsibility of __________.  A. his/her supervisor B. a mentor or sponsor C. the HR department D. all of the above

73. Although organizations are strongly encouraged to check the authorization to work of all employees, they cannot discriminate against applicants on the basis of country of origin.  True False

74. It is best to ask for proof of employment eligibility prior to making a job offer.  True False

75. Negligent hiring claims are made when an employer fails to provide adequate compensation and benefits to a new hire.  True False

76. Having applicants sign release statements so the employer can do background investigations is a legal means for minimizing the possibility of negligent hiring.  True False

77. In general, the employment relationship is an at-will one.  True False

78. Under the requirements of the Immigration Reform and Control Act, employers must ___________.  A. adjust pay scales for alien status B. verify employability status for aliens only C. verify employability status for all potential employees D. verify employability status for applicants before an offer is extended

79. Which of the following statements about negligent hiring lawsuits against employers is accurate?  A. monetary damages are usually leveled against the employee found to be at fault B. the plaintiff must present evidence the injury or harm was a foreseeable consequence of hiring the unfit employee C. the employer has the initial burden to present evidence of proper hiring practice in such cases D. suits of this kind are decreasing as companies in the private sector recognize the liabilities involved

80. To reduce the likelihood of negligent hiring lawsuits organizations should _____.  A. emphasize characteristics like licensure requirements, criminal records, and references B. avoid gathering too much KSAO information because it can be used to demonstrate that an organization "should have known" an employee would be a problem C. refuse to fire individuals with a history of mental illnesses D. none of the above are useful to prevent negligent hiring suits

#BUS 335 Week 9 Quiz– Strayer New

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mwatech · 7 years

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Falling Standard Of Education In Nigeria: Who Is To Be Blame?

INTRODUCTION

The concept ” falling standard of Education” is a relative term because there is no well defined instruments to measure it with utmost reliability and validity. That is why scholars’ views on the concept varies. These scholars view it at different perspectives, depending on the angle each of them is looking at it.

Babalola, A (2006) sees the concept from admission of Nigerian University products in developed countries universities. That the first six Nigerian Universities (University of Ibadan, Ile Ife, Lagos, Benin, Nsukka and Zaria) had their products competing favourably with any other University in the world as their products were sought for by University of Harvard, Cambridge, Oxford and London for admission into their post-graduate courses. That these students record breaking performances and when they graduate are employed by the best multi-national companies and corporate bodies globally unlike today where no Nigerian University is among the top 6,000 Universities of the world (Adeniyi, Bello (2008) in Why no worry about rankings). He sees standard from how universities contribute to knowledge and solving problems besetting mankind.

According to Gateway to the Nation (2010), University of Ibadan is ranked 6,340th University in the world. In Africa, University of Ibadan is ranked 57th, OAU 69th and South African Universities are leading the way in Africa. He also use written and spoken English as a yardstick for measuring standard of education which University of London conducted a research in West Africa and the result showed that teachers trained by colonial masters were better of than those trained by indigenous teachers.

He also used staffing, funding, foundation, origin and students as standard of education.

Standard of education to Dike, V. (2003) is how education contribute to the public health (or sociopolitical and economic development of a Nation).

Standard of education to either passing or failing of external examinations like WAEC, NECO, NABTEB, JAMB,(NOW UTME) among others.

Teachers without Boarders (2006) looks at educational standard from how the products of schools can be measured in terms of outcome. That is how school leavers contribute to the society in terms of cognitive affective and psychomotor. I will be using students to refer to both students and pupils, I will use head teacher to refer to both principal and headmaster.

Which ever way you may view standard of education, for you to conclude whether the standard is falling or not, you must take into consideration all the aforementioned variables including achieving educational goals.

Equally, for justice to be done while measuring these standards one has to look at reliability where all the schools to be measured must have the same infrastructure, teaching materials, quality of teachers, level and degree of learners, condition within which learning takes place, some methods of assessment and some types of contribution to the society among others.

CAUSES OF FALLING STANDARDS

Haven discussed what makes up standard in education, may I crave your indulgence to some of the established facts that constitute falling standard of education in Nigeria.

(1) Discipline: This is one of the outstanding attributes of education when it is rightly observed.

a. Repeating: school no longer observe repeating as every student is promoted to the next class whether they understand or not gives room for falling standard. b. Attendance: The 75% of attendance universally accepted as the bases for someone to sit for examination is no longer observed. c. Late coming: Student that come late are no longer punished, which leads to their losing morning classes. d. Misbehaviour: Students are no longer punished for misbehavior because of their parental influences (lost of jobs or unnecessary transfer). e. Cultism: This could refer to rituals, usually under oath binding the members to a common course. They operate covertly in fulfillment of their objectives to the detriment of other people. Thus, planning secondary needs above primary needs.

These cults exist because of over population of students in schools, wrong admissions not based on merits, hence fear of examination failures and selfish worldly gains.

(2) Quest for paper qualification: Nigerians respect paper qualification above performance in the fields. Hence, cognitive, affective and psychomotor domains are supposed to be measured on the field.

(3) Politicizing education: Merit is no longer regarded as it is now ” who you know” and not “what you can deliver” Technocrats (educationists are not appointed Commissioner of education and education board).

(4) Policy problem: Sometimes the type of policies government make on education adversely affects output. For instance, in College of Education, we have National Commission for Colleges of Education (NCCE), competing with JAMB for admission as the two guidelines vary.

Equally, WAEC, NECO, NABTEB, JAMB ( now UTME) compete with qualifying pre-requisites and regulation of entries into tertiary institutions.

(5) Teachers not being part of the examination bodies. One wonders whether the continuous Assessment submitted by these teachers are used or not.

(6) Accessibility of Schools: The Nigerian population boom has outnumbered the existing schools as the existing schools have to over admit.

This point can be practically seen in the following areas:

(i) Teacher / Student ratio of 1:25 is no longer there as in my class, it is 1:3900. (ii) Students / books / Journals ratio of 1:10 is no longer feasible. (iii) Politics of admission: Schools can no longer set targets for admission to conform with their facilities as powerful notes from above will force the school authorities to either over admit or find themselves in the labour market again. Yet it is those that are giving these notes are suppose to build more schools or provide needed infrastructure etc. to accommodate those collecting these notes.

(7) Over-dependent on cognitive domain: Schools do not give regards to affective domain that will mould characters of our young ones. Little attention is given to psychomotor while no attention is given to affective domain.

(8) Shortage of qualified teachers: Some schools in the rural areas only have the headmaster as government employee while the rest that may be secondary school drop outs are PTA staff. What miracle can these staff perform? Dike, V. (2006) observed that only 23% out of the then 400,000 primary schools in Nigeria have grade II even when NCE is now the minimum qualification for teachers at primary and Junior Secondary schools.

(9) Teachers welfare: It is no longer news that

(a) Politicians do not have negotiation council to negotiate their salary increase. (b) There is no disparity among political office holders from the federal, state and local governments. (c) Their salaries are increased at astronomical manner. (d) Their salaries are increased any time without recourse to whether the nation’s economy can bear it or not. (e) But for teachers, they must negotiate the 10 to 20% of an attempt to increase their salary with consideration of the economy of the nation. How can these teachers contribute and perform miracle when their family members are in the hospitals and the O.S. syndrome is written on their cards by pharmacists while they do not have money to treat.

(10) Constant Strikes: This is an impediment to smooth covering of syllabus. Oefule (2009) explained that one Nigerian guest asked a question on strike at Oxford University community but the vice chancellor could not even remember about strike, only the registrar remembered it for 17 years back. This is what governance means to the people.

(11) Long rule of the military; Education was not properly funded by the military regimes as according to Babalola, A(2006) Obasanjos administration inherited many left over problems of the military such as non- payment of pensions and gratuities of retired University staff, poor remuneration of university staff, dilapidating buildings of schools, libraries with outdated books, obsolete laboratory equipments, bad campus roads, inadequate water and power supply among others.

(12) In the secondary and primary schools levels, schools do not even have buildings talk less` of furniture’s, equipments and reading materials. This is the level where the foundation of education should be laid. Any faulty foundation will lead to faulty structures. What do you expect from the tertiary level?

(13) Lack of training of teachers: Teachers are not trained to update their knowledge with latest discoveries based on research, then how can they give what they don’t have?

(14) Poor state of Educational teaching facilities: Dike V. (2006) reported that research result shows that over 2015 primary schools in Nigeria do not have building but study under trees, talk less of teaching materials.

(15) Corruption: leaders of the schools and some Government officials either connive to buy equipments with loan money that cannot be of any use to the school or take such loans and do not even do anything with it.

(16) Poor budgetary allocation to education: A research work of 2001 shows that Nigeria only, allocate less than 20% to education it further reveals that Nigeria spends 0.76% to education as against Uganda 2.6%, Tanzania3.4%, Mozambique 4.1%, Angola 4.9%, Coted Ivore 5% Kenya 6.5% and South Africa 7.9% among others.

WHO IS TO BE BLAMED?

We have seen the causes of falling standards and from these causes we can deduce that the following are to be blamed:

1. Government suppose to carry the lion share of the blame because all the other variables are dependent variables to it.

2. Teachers also have their shares of the blame with regards to their diligent duties.

3. Parents: feeding has to be provided by parents. This is because parents do not leave schools to operate without interference.

4. Students: students who do not abide by school rules and regulations nor pay attention to their studies also contribute to falling standards. Students also seek for paper qualification and disregards to performance they also participate in cult activities that derail the progress of the academy.

5. The society is not left out as it is the way it sees and respects the products of these schools that recycles back again.

SOLUTION

Based on the problems or causes identified above, the following solutions are proffered: Schools should respect and restore back discipline to bring back the lost glory of our educational standards.

Performance should be regarded and respected more than just paper qualification. Equally, education should not be politicized for whatever reason.

Policy makers should be mindful of policies that affect education .eg JAMB(UTME) regulation in admissions.

Teachers should be involved in examination activities and examination bodies should always publish examination reports and distribute it to various schools for them to hold school workshop for training of subject teachers on their areas of weaknesses observed in the students’ scripts with regards to following the marking scheme.

More schools should be built to increase accessibility by all. Cognitive, affective and psychomotor domain should be used for assessment of students.

Teachers’ welfare should be given priority by government to avoid unnecessary strikes in our educational sector while more qualified teachers should be employed to curb the present shortage of teachers in our schools.

Our civilian government should prove to the people that they are better than military government.

Teachers should be trained so that they can meet up with any new challenges Educational facilities should be upgraded to modern standards while teaching facilities should be adequately provided.

Corruption should be eliminated to the barest minimum by all stakeholders while government should increase its budgetary allocations to education to improve the standard of education in Nigeria.

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