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#whereas lumen normally is white

sportyconnect · 9 months

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Advanced headlight technologies like HID and LED offer key advantages over standard halogen bulbs. Both produce significantly brighter, whiter light for safer nighttime driving. But how exactly do HID and LED headlights compare in terms of performance, longevity, cost, and legality? This comprehensive guide examines the pros and cons of each to help determine which advanced headlight option is best for your needs. Introduction to HID and LED Headlights HID and LED headlights represent the future of automotive lighting with brighter, more efficient, and longer-lasting performance compared to traditional halogen bulbs. But the two technologies work in different ways: What are HID Headlights? HID stands for High Intensity Discharge. HID bulbs contain xenon gas that emits light when excited by an electrical arc. Key components include the bulb, ballast, and ignitor. Produce bright white light around 4300-5000K color temperature. What are LED Headlights? LED stands for Light Emitting Diode. LEDs use semiconductors to emit light when electricity flows through. Compact LED chips allow flexible designs. Emit very white light, can be manufactured to different color temps. Both HID and LED headlights represent a major upgrade in visibility over outdated halogen technology. But how do they compare to each other? We’ll examine the key differences: Brightness Comparison Brighter headlights greatly improve safety and visibility at night. But are HIDs or LEDs brighter? HID headlights typically produce around 3000 - 8000 lumens for street legal use. LED headlights output an extremely bright 8000 - 10,000+ lumens. Top-end performance HID kits offer 8000-12,000 lumens. The newest adaptive LED headlights are the brightest at 10,000-15,000 lumens. So while high-end HIDs can come close, the latest LED headlight technology currently produces the most light output. Even entry-level LED conversions tend to produce whiter, more focused light than HID kits. How HID and LED Headlights Work While both produce bright white light, HID and LED headlights rely on different underlying technologies: How HID Headlights Work HID headlights work by lighting up xenon gas contained in a specially designed bulb: An electrical arc is generated between two electrodes in the HID bulb using a high voltage pulse. This electrical arc excites the xenon gas, raising it to a plasma state that emits light. The ballast regulates current after initial arc ignition. Light output remains constant until turned off. How LED Headlights Work LED headlights utilize semiconductor chips instead of excited gases to produce light: Electricity flowing through the semiconductor makes electrons active, releasing photons. The photons emitted from LED chips is the visible light output. This process of photons being emitted by electrons flowing through a semiconductor is called electroluminescence. LED chips are compact and can be combined into flexible lighting designs. So HID lights use the heating of interior gases whereas LEDs rely on electrons passing through semiconductor material - two fundamentally different scientific processes resulting in bright headlights! Lifespan and Durability A key consideration for any headlight technology is how long they will last: HID Lifespan Properly installed HID bulbs typically last 2,000 to 5,000 hours of use. That equals about 2-5 years of normal nighttime driving. HID bulbs gradually get dimmer over time before needing replacement. LED Lifespan LED headlights are extremely long-lasting, with lifespans of 30,000 to 50,000 hours. They will essentially last the lifetime of most vehicles when used normally. 10-15 years of typical night driving before reaching 70% original brightness. Durability LEDs are also more durable than HID bulbs that use fragile quartz glass. Their solid-state design m

akes them resistant to vibrations and shocks. No moving parts or filaments that can break. So LED headlights have a huge advantage in long-term durability and lifespan over HID bulbs. No more frequent headlight replacements. Warm-Up Time Do HID and LED lights provide instant brightness when turned on? LED headlights reach full brightness immediately when turned on. No warm-up time required. HID headlights take 10-15 seconds to heat up the gases and reach full brightness. So LEDs provide faster illumination the moment you start your car and turn on the lights. HIDs require some brief warm-up even in the newest systems. Light Color Outputs The color temperature of headlights affects visibility as well as aesthetics: HID Color Temperature HID bulbs currently available for the aftermarket produce light in the 4300K to 5000K range. This spectral output appears very white to the human eye but has a hint of blue. LED Color Options LED headlight color temperature is more variable. Aftermarket LED kits are available from 3000K to 8000K. Lower 3000-4000K range produces a yellowish light. 5000-6000K is crisp white light optimal for visibility. Above 6000K appears bluish-white. So LEDs offer greater flexibility in precise color temperature for aesthetic and performance needs. HIDs lean somewhat blue but still produce very usable white light. Legality Concerns Along with performance factors, legal compliance is essential for any headlight system: HID Legality Issues Installing HID conversion kits in halogen headlight housings is illegal in some states due to glare. HID kits best reserved for auxiliary fog lights or off-road use only. Even legal use requires properly mounted ballasts and aim adjustment. LED Legality LEDs have fewer legality issues when properly installed in approved housings. Their focused brightness and flexible beam patterns reduce glare concerns. Still advisable to check local regulations before LED installation. So LED conversions tend to be the safer legal option for actual headlight usage, though HID kits can serve well for auxiliary lighting with care taken in installation. Cost Comparison A significant factor when choosing headlight technologies is cost: HID Kit Pricing Full HID conversion kits cost around $100-$300. Components include bulbs, ballasts, wiring. Bulb replacements needed every 2-5 years. LED Headlight Pricing High-quality LED headlights range from $300-$700 for a full set. No extra components needed beyond the bulb/chip housing. May cost more upfront but last 10-15 years with no replacements. Labor Costs LEDs and HIDs both typically require professional installation for optimal legality, safety, and performance. Additional Pros and Cons Pros of HID Headlights: Produce bright "xenon" white light around 4300-5000K color temperature. Available for around $100-200 per pair conversion kits. Represent affordable upgrade over halogen. Cons of HID Headlights: Require ballasts that need proper installation. Limited lifespan of bulbs compared to LED. Not legal for headlight use in some areas. Pros of LED Headlights: Super long lifespan of 30,000-50,000 hours. Instant full brightness when switched on. No glare issues if properly installed. Cons of LED Headlights: More expensive upfront cost over HID kits. Sensitive to overheating and voltage spikes. Initial blue tint on some cheaper models. HID vs LED Recommendations Considering their performance, legality, and cost characteristics, here are some usage recommendations: Best for Headlight Usage For actual headlights, LEDs are the best option due to brightness, legal compliance, and longevity. Best for Auxiliary Lights For auxiliary lights like fog lights, either LED or HID can work well to increase visibil

ity. Best Color Choice 5000-6000K provides good road visibility at night from both technologies. Best for Trucks or Off-Road HIDs are a good lower cost option for auxiliary truck lighting if properly aimed. Best Long-Term Investment Premium LED headlights will last 10-15 years in most vehicles, making them the best long-term investment. Summary Upgrading to advanced HID or LED headlight technology delivers vastly improved visibility and safety at night compared to outdated halogen headlamps. Both technologies produce crisp white light at higher color temperatures than halogens. However, the latest LED headlights currently outperform even the best HID systems in terms of brightness, efficiency, durability and expected lifespan. Though more expensive initially, high quality LED conversions pay for themselves over years of reliable service without the need for bulb replacements. HID kits still offer an affordable performance upgrade when used properly within regulations as auxiliary lighting. But for actual vehicle headlights where maximum illumination, compliance, and longevity are needed, LED headlights deliver the best combination of cutting-edge performance and technology. FAQs Which headlight technology produces a brighter light? LED headlights can produce slightly brighter light output versus HID, around 9,000-10,000 lumens. Do LED or HID headlights last longer? LED headlights have a significantly longer lifespan of 30,000-50,000 hours compared to just 2,000-5,000 hours for HIDs. Which lights provide instant illumination? LED headlights provide full brightness instantly when turned on, while HID bulbs take 10-15 seconds to warm up. Are HID conversion kits legal everywhere? No, HID kits are not legal for headlight use on all vehicles in all areas. LEDs have fewer restrictions. Which headlight option is more affordable? HID conversion kits are generally cheaper upfront, but LEDs are more cost effective long term. #Wiack

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wiackcom · 9 months

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biling-solar · 3 years

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Several Methods Of Charging Solar Ground Spotlights

The ability to store the Sun’s energy for use at night is something our ancestors must have dreamed about. Fortunately for us, this dream is not only real, but it’s become the norm for humans everywhere. Solar panels have revolutionized light technology and have quite literally brought us out of darkness.

solar ground spotlights are a simple solution for most homeowners. It’s easy to pop them in a place with plenty of sun and wait until the battery is fully charged. However, depending on your geographical location, the season, or the weather, sunlight levels may vary. In this case, you may need to be a bit resourceful when charging your Biling lights.

In this article, we’ll explore how to charge your solar ground spotlights without sunlight so that you can get more use out of them. There are three main ways to approach the problem: using electricity, artificial light or indirect sunlight.

How do solar ground spotlights work?

Before we dive into how to charge solar ground spotlights without the Sun, it’s important to first discuss how they work. Essentially, a solar light consists of a photovoltaic cell, a battery and a light all fixed together. There are several steps involved in the process of harvesting energy, converting it and then emitting it for use in a garden, emergency situation or pathway.

Step 1: Light enters the photovoltaic cell and energy is collected in by the wiring of the mini solar panel. This electricity is then fed to the solar light’s battery.

Step 2: The battery stores this energy as chemical energy during the daytime. The battery will then begin to provide it to the light when the battery is no longer being directly charged by the Sun.

Step 3: The system lights up the LED bulbs which draw energy from the battery until it’s exhausted or daylight hours resume. LED is an obvious choice for solar ground spotlights due to their ultra-low energy usage.

The Basics of Solar Cells

The photovoltaic cells and amorphous cells used in solar panels can turn solar radiation into electricity. These cells are only able to effectively convert specific types of visible light into electrical energy. For example, infrared and ultraviolet (UV) light don’t contribute much to power production.

The most efficient form of visible light for power production is within the spectrum of violet to red, or the wavelengths of 380nm to 750nm. You can either harvest this light naturally (using the Sun), or artificially (using other electric lights).

1. ELECTRICITY

This option is often the easiest as many solar ground spotlights come equipped with a power plug or USB connector. You can simply plug the light into the wall or an external power source and charge the battery, completely circumventing the solar panels altogether. In this way, the solar light functions just the same as a normal wired or battery-powered lamp.

Camping solar ground spotlights also often feature a DC car charger adapter. If you’re out in nature and don’t have access to a mainframe electrical system, this can be a real-life saver. However, if you’re planning on using solar ground spotlights while hiking or camping, always charge them beforehand. All it takes is one longer-than-expected hike or placing the light in a shaded spot to drain your battery.

2. ARTIFICIAL LIGHT

Solar panels are specifically designed to capture sunlight. However, the panels can still charge using other forms of visible light. Artificial light comes from many different sources, but on average, it is usually far less intense and effective when compared to natural sunlight.

While it may seem counterintuitive to charge an electric light with another electric light, there are some situations where this may be a benefit. For example, you can conserve energy by charging your solar ground spotlights inside your house while you go about your daily activities. Once the sun sets, you can simply place them back outside. Alternatively, you could charge your lights in a well-lit public place if you don’t have access to an electricity port or the Sun.

As far as ordinary household lighting goes, incandescent bulbs emit wavelengths that are the most similar to sunlight. Unfortunately, incandescent lights are becoming more and more uncommon as homeowners switch to more efficient LED bulbs. If you have an incandescent light in your home, try to place your solar panel as close to the light as you can.

The Importance of Lumens

Lumens are the measure of brightness. When charging a solar panel, you’ll want to pick an artificial light source that has the highest number of lumens as it will be the most intense. This intensity will ‘mimic’ the power of the Sun, helping to charge your solar panel as quickly and efficiently as possible

A rough way to estimate how many lumens a household bulb produces is to look at the wattage. Basically, a higher wattage equals more lumens. For reference, sunlight on a summer’s day measures out to about 10,000 lumens per square foot. The closer you can get to this number, the faster your solar ground spotlights will charge under your artificial light.

Incandescent bulbs Fluorescent bulbs LED bulbs

Lumens Watts Watts Watts

250 25 4-9 3

450 40 9-13 4-5

800 60 13-15 6-8

1,100 75 18-25 9-13

1,600 100 23-30 16-20

2,000 125 28-40 20-25

2,600 150 30-55 25-28

LED’s are amazingly energy efficient close to 1/10 the watt usage of Incandescent

3. Indirect Sunlight

It may come as a surprise to learn that solar ground spotlights don’t actually need direct sunlight to charge. An indirect source can still provide some level of charge using your solar panels. If direct sunlight isn’t an option, a bright but shaded spot can work in a pinch.

One way to maximize efficiency with indirect sunlight is to place reflective surfaces or mirrors around your solar panels. These will help to direct more sunlight into your panels without having to physically move them. A mirror is the best choice, but a large, flat and white object can also work.

When using mirrors, pick some that are at least twice the size of your solar panels. This will ensure the panel is receiving as much sunlight as possible. It’s also recommended that you reposition the mirrors as the sun moves throughout the day.

Charging your solar ground spotlights in Cloudy Weather

It’s a cloudy and miserable day- there’s no way any sunlight is reaching your solar panels, right? No, not really. Regardless of the weather, quite a bit of sunlight can still manage to find its way to Earth’s surface.

When it’s cloudy outside, you can still get a decent or full charge for your solar ground spotlights depending on the size. On a particularly overcast day, solar panels are only around 20% as effective as they would be on sunny days. However, this is assuming there are no cloud breaks during the day, which is rare.

In inclement weather conditions, it’s recommended that you regularly dry your solar panels with a soft cloth. Precipitation can affect how much light your panels are receiving and may damage them if they aren’t fully sealed.

You should also angle your solar ground spotlights to face the sun directly as this will maximize your charging capabilities.

3 Ways to Make Sure you are Getting as Much Charge as Possible

If you’re using your solar panels in sub-optimal conditions, like cloudy weather or with artificial light, you need to make sure that you’re harvesting every ounce of power available to you. After all, if you might be cutting it close on whether you’ll have light tonight, it’s best to do what you can to maximize your chances of a good charge.

1. Angle your lights

Angling your solar ground spotlights directly at the sun or artificial light source may give you that little bit extra to maximize your charge. While you may not always be able to move a fixed solar light that’s mounted to a wall or installed on a fence post, you should try to get creative as possible.

It’s important to note that the sun is at its strongest during midday. Keep this in mind when moving your solar panels as this can greatly affect how much your battery charges. If you put out your panels in the morning, don’t forget to reposition them in the afternoon and evening as well.

2. Keep your Lights at an Ambient Temperature

Temperature is another factor that affects the efficiency of photovoltaic cells. Extremely high temperatures are something that should be avoided at all costs as they can damage or decrease the efficiency of your solar panels.

Anything higher than 87 degrees Fahrenheit will result in a decrease in production of electricity. When installing your solar ground spotlights, avoid placing them on a dark surface as it will make the lights hotter during the day. If you’re using an indoor electric light to charge the panels, don’t place the solar light too close to the bulb as it will get too hot or pose a fire risk.

3. Keep your Solar Panels Clean

Removing any dirt or dust from your panels will help to ensure that light isn’t being blocked. A simple wipe with a bit of gentle soap, window cleaner, or some water will go a long way in terms of keeping your solar ground spotlights in good working condition.

Can you charge a solar light with a flashlight?

Yes, you can – artificial light (eg flashlight) is capable of charging your solar ground spotlights. The speed that the flashlight will charge the solar light depends on the brightness.

An average flashlight emits 100 lumens, so it will take much longer to charge your solar light as compared to being outside. As a comparison (in lumens), the average flashlight is 6.7% as powerful as a cloudy day and .1% as powerful as a sunny day!

So you don’t need sunlight for solar ground spotlights, but it definitely helps.

According to Philips (you know the lightbulb manufacturers):

Typical room illumination is 300-500 lumens, whereas outdoor light varies from 1500 lumens on a cloudy day to 100,000 lumens on a sunny day.

https://www.biling1.com/

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reevesaisah · 3 years

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The Top 5 Applications for LED Lighting

#1: Daily Uses in the Home

According to Domestic Electrician, LED lighting in Melbourne might help you save money on electricity.

Numerous LED light strips are available in various configurations, including recessed lighting and watt/lumens conversions for general use.

When a bulb in a conventional light fixture, such as a lamp, burns out, an LED bulb can replace it.

LED counterparts can replace specialty bulbs, such as those used in appliances.

LED bulbs can also be used in floodlights that illuminate porches, driveways, patios, decks, and backyards.

To improve visibility in a home office, standard bulbs in desk lights and reading lamps can be replaced with LED illumination.

LED bulbs can be used to replace incandescent bulbs in under-cabinet lighting and recessed lighting to add additional light.

The LED bulb has the advantage of consuming between 13 and 15% of the electricity consumed by a standard light bulb.

Even with recessed illumination, LED lights can endure tens of thousands of hours.

Due to their compact size and lightweight, LED Christmas lights to last longer than traditional bulbs.

You can preserve them until the following year, and they will continue to function normally.

LED lighting is the most energy-efficient kind of Christmas illumination.

#2: Workplace Lighting

The Harvard School of Medicine conducted a study to determine whether there are any benefits to implementing LED lighting in the workplace.

According to the study's findings, workers exposed to LED blue-enriched white light were more alert, performed better, had a more positive attitude, concentrated better, and were less exhausted at the end of the workday.

LED recessed lighting is quite soothing in the office.

Additionally, there were other advantages to implementing new and improved LED lighting in the workplace.

LED lights in several configurations, including recessed lighting and retrofitted, existing, or new fixtures, increased worker safety, and productivity.

#3: Gathering Locations

LED lights are often utilized to replace incandescent and fluorescent lighting in public and street lighting.

As a result, local governments can save money on lighting public spaces.

Apart from the cost savings, LED lighting is more efficient and safer than traditional lighting.

Communities that implement LED lighting in their streets, parks, parking lots, and other public places realize considerable financial savings and a drop in crime.

LED lighting contributes to sunny areas by illuminating sports grounds, community parks, and schools.

#4 Lights

LED flashlights are now the best flashlight option due to their excellent durability, reliability, and low energy consumption.

LED flashlights to use the same size battery as traditional incandescent flashlights but last substantially longer.

There are LED flashlights that can be recharged with a hand crank and are battery-free.

LED flashlights are resistant to shocks and vibrations that would break conventional flashlights.

Additionally, consider the fact that LED torches will surely last a lifetime.

#5: Automobile Headlamps

Automobile manufacturers are rapidly using LEDs for interior and exterior lighting.

LEDs power Audi's running headlights throughout the day.

Compared to an incandescent bulb, the LED bulb responds in milliseconds, whereas an incandescent bulb illuminates fully over several tenths of a second.

Although a few tenths of a second may not seem like much, you will travel between ten and forty feet before the brake light lights at highway speeds.

As a result, LED brake lights are substantially safer than conventional brake lights since they alert drivers, lowering the risk of rear-end collisions.

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cityboyaisha · 3 years

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Top 5 LED Lighting Applications

LED lighting Melbourne, according to Domestic Electrician can help you save money on electricity. Many LED light strips are available in various forms, including recessed lighting and watt/lumens that have been adapted for everyday usage. When a bulb in a normal light fixture, such as a lamp, burns out, you can replace it with an LED light strips. Because specialty bulbs, such as those used in appliances have LED equivalents, they may be changed. Floodlights that light porches, driveways, patios, decks, and backyards can also use LED bulbs instead of normal bulbs.

Top 5 LED Lighting Applications

1. Uses in the Home on a Day-to-Day Basis

According to Domestic Electrician, LED lighting in the Northern Suburbs of Brisbane can help you save money on electricity. Many LED light strips are available in various forms, including recessed lighting and watt/lumens that have been adapted for everyday usage. When a bulb in a regular light fixture, such as a lamp, burns out, you can replace it with an LED bulb. Because specialty bulbs, such as those used in appliances have LED equivalents, they may be changed. Floodlights that light porches, driveways, patios, decks, and backyards can also use LED bulbs instead of standard bulbs.

Standard bulbs in desk lights and reading lamps in a home office can be replaced with LED illumination to improve visibility. LED bulbs can be utilized to replace old-style bulbs in lights under your kitchen cabinets and recessed lighting, which will provide more light.

The LED bulb has the advantage of using only 13 to 15 percent of the electricity that a regular light bulb uses. LED lights may survive tens of thousands of hours, even in recessed illumination.

LED Christmas lights endure longer than regular bulbs since they are tiny and light. You can save them till next year, and they will still function. LED lighting is the most excellent alternative for Christmas illumination.

2. Lighting in the Workplace

The Harvard School of Medicine studied the advantages of using LED lighting in the workplace. According to the study's findings, workers exposed to LED blue-enriched white light were more alert, had a more excellent performance, had a more positive attitude, were better able to concentrate, and were less exhausted at the end of the workday. At the office, LED recessed lighting is highly relaxing.

There were also other advantages to employing new and improved LED lights in the workplace. The utilization of LED lights installed in various methods, including recessed lightings, such as through the use of retrofitted, existing, or new fixtures, enhanced both worker safety and productivity.

3. Gathering Spots

LED lights are commonly utilized to replace public lighting and street lights. Local governments can save money on lighting public spaces as a result of this. Aside from the price benefits, LED lighting is brighter and safer than traditional lighting. Communities that adopt LED lighting for their streets, parks, parking lots, and other public places realize significant financial savings and a dramatic decrease in crime. LED lights for sports fields, community parks, and schools contribute to happier neighborhoods.

4. Flashlights

LED flashlights are now the ideal flashlight option since they are incredibly sturdy and reliable and take very little energy. LED flashlights to use the same size battery as incandescent flashlights, but they last substantially longer. There are LED torches that can be charged using a hand crank and do not require batteries. LED flashlights can survive shocks and vibrations that would fracture the old-fashioned flashlights. Another thing to consider considering LED flashlights is that they will surely last a lifetime.

5. Automobile Lights

Carmakers are increasingly employing LEDs for both interior and exterior illumination. During the day, Audi's running headlights are powered by LEDs. Compared to an incandescent bulb, the LED bulb responds in milliseconds, whereas an incandescent bulb takes several tenths of a second to glow fully. Although a few tenths of a second may not seem like much, you will go twenty to forty feet before the brake light activates at highway speeds. As a result, LED brake lights are substantially safer because they alert drivers, reducing the chance of rear-end incidents.

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vishsharma19blr · 4 years

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A projector – Buying Guide

A projector is an output device that projects an image onto the large surface area such as a white screen and wall. The projector may be used as an alternative to the monitor and television when showing the videos and images to a large group of people. Moreover, projectors come in various shapes & sizes though they are commonly about a foot long & wide and a few inches wall.

They can be mounted on the ceiling or maybe freestanding & portable. Generally, Ceiling mounted projectors are larger especially ones that project a long distance such as 30 feet or more. So, these projectors are commonly found in the classrooms, conference rooms, auditorium & the places of worship.

What is the projector?

The best projector may be the best thought of as an inverted camera and spitting light out of the lens rather than receiving it. For the sake of this guide, we’ll be considering the digital projectors that is, projectors with the video inputs that serve the same function to a TV and a computer monitor while, offering the few benefits which may include,

Large image sizes

Increase portability

Flexible installation possibilities

Furthermore, portable projectors can be used wherever there’s a bright surface such as the white and light color wall. Most of the projectors have multiple input sources such as the HDMI ports for newer equipment & VGA ports for older devices. Some of the projectors support Bluetooth & WIFI as well.

Types Of Projectors

There are different types of projectors which are as follows:

Pocket Projectors

Multimedia Projectors

Short Throw Projectors

Pocket Projectors

Pocket projectors are ultra-portable and some are not much larger than the smartphones. And some resembling miniaturized multi-media projectors. They’re best as a substitute for a computer monitor or small TV that you can take with you. Since they used LED lamps to avoid high power consumption and bulky cooling system. What they give you in portability, they sacrifice image size. However, the brightness with be discussed below. But for the sake of projectors, pocket projectors range from 25 to 1500 lumens. Whereas, high-end projects stars from 2500 lumens. They also tend to lack optical zoom, which means you will be flexible with your projector placement to achieve the desired image quality.

Multimedia Projector

Multimedia projectors represent the largest category and they’re most widely sold at B&H. Multimedia projectors are general-purpose & they are used for the very thing from the PowerPoint presentation to screening the video clips & the slideshows at the wedding ceremony. Multimedia projectors typically considered the portable projector and weighing from the 3-pounds for the ultra-slim models & increasing from there. Moreover, their brightness tends to range from the 2500 lumens to 4500 lumens. They virtually always have zoom lenses. However, the zoom range is normally shorter than that of home theater.

This means special care needs to be taken when selecting, to make sure the screen size is compatible with the projector’s throw ratio. Multimedia projectors also offer a range of inputs. VGA port is still the staple, but the digital inputs such as HDMI port, DVI port, display port & even the SDI port are available. Many also support interactive & wireless presentation functionally as well as the ability to give the presentation to the computer. Multimedia projectors tend to follow the computer resolution rather than the SD and HD video resolution. These resolution includes the SVGA (800 x 600), XGA (1024 x 768), & the WUXGA (1920 x 1200). The most popular resolution is WXGA and it’s well suited for the PowerPoint presentation as well as the high definition video.

Short Throw Projectors:

The most important subcategory of projectors is the short throw & the ultra-short throw. Generally, a throw ratio of less than the 1:1 is considered the short throw. The most common throw ratios are 0.5:1 & the 0.3:1 with the latter fulfilling the distinction of being the ultra-short throw. Short throw projectors almost never have zoom lenses. In the case of ultra-short-throw projectors, use the mirror onto which the image is projected first before being reflected at the screen. They lend themselves to the wall rather than the ceiling mounting & they are designed to be installed very close to the screen, 18-inches to2-feet.

In addition, short-throw projectors are most often used in the classrooms and short throw lenses are ideal for the [pairing with the digital whiteboards. One might be tempted to place a short-throw projector further back than the recommended couple of feet to achieve the large picture in a small space. This possibly would not work, since the short throw projectors keystones severely when used outside their recommended throw distance range & will need some very creative mounting to produce an undistorted image. Short throw projectors normally top out at the 3000 ANSI lumens. So, if you require a brighter projector & have limited space, you’ll need to look at a fixed installation projector with the interchangeable lenses.

How is the projector used today?

Project a power-point presentation at the business meeting

Project the computer screen to teach the class

Project a computer with a movie playing at the large screen

Demo a product or service at the steady center

Transform a wall, house, and other objects to give it a different appearance

When was the 1st projector invented?

The first carousel slide projector was invented on May 11, 1965, by a David Hansen man. So, the digital projector we know today was created by Gene Dolgoff in 1984. Although, this man came up with the concept for it in 1968.

How does the projector get its input?

Today, most projectors use either an HDMI cable and VGA cable from the computer as their input source.

Conclusion:

This is the buying guide about the best projectors. If you’re looking to buy a projector, then you must go through this article first to pick the right projector for your home or business.

#projector for watching movies #tumblr #aesthetic #like #love #follow

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siva3155 · 4 years

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300+ TOP ESOPHAGUS-STOMACH-DUODENUM SURGERY Objective Questions and Answers

ESOPHAGUS-STOMACH-DUODENUM SURGERY Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. Which of the following statements about the anatomic course of the esophagus is correct? A. The cervical esophagus passes behind and to the right of the trachea. B. The thoracic esophagus enters the posterior mediastinum anterior to the aortic arch. C. The thoracic esophagus passes behind the right mainstem bronchus and the pericardium. D. The esophagus enters the diaphragmatic hiatus at the level of T8. E. The esophagus deviates anteriorly and to the left as it enters the abdomen. Answer: E 2. Which of the following statements about esophageal anatomy is correct? A. The esophagus has a poor blood supply, which is segmental in distribution and accounts for the high incidence of anastomotic leakage. B. The esophageal serosa consists of a thin layer of fibroareolar tissue. C. The esophagus has two distinct muscle layers, an outer, longitudinal one and an inner, circular one, which are striated in the upper third and smooth in the distal two thirds. D. Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve results in vocal cord dysfunction but does not affect swallowing. E. The lymphatic drainage of the esophagus is relatively sparse, localized primarily to adjacent paraesophageal lymph nodes. Answer: C 3. Which of the following statements about the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) mechanism, or high-pressure zone (HPZ), is true? A. The LES is a circular smooth muscle ring that is 3 to 5 cm. long. B. In assessing esophageal manometric data, mean HPZ pressure less than 6 mm. Hg or overall length less than 2 cm. is more likely to be associated with incompetence of the LES and gastroesophageal reflux. C. Esophageal manometry and the acid perfusion (Bernstein) test reliably identify the patient with an incompetent LES mechanism. D. Distal HPZ relaxation occurs within 5 to 8 seconds of initiating a swallow. E. Twenty-four–hour distal esophageal pH monitoring is achieved with an intraesophageal pH electrode positioned at the esophagogastric junction. Answer: B 4. Which of the following statements about esophageal motility is/are true? A. The act of swallowing initiates UES relaxation, which persists until the bolus of food passes the LES. B. The primary peristaltic wave normally propels the swallowed bolus through the esophagus in 4 to 8 seconds. C. Normally, a progressive peristaltic contraction (primary wave) follows 50% of all swallows, the remainder being secondary or tertiary contractions. D. Secondary peristalsis is initiated when the entire swallowed bolus of food fails to empty from the esophagus into the stomach. E. Tertiary esophageal contractions are high-amplitude progressive peristaltic contractions that produce the “corkscrew” appearance of esophageal spasm on barium esophagography. Answer: BD 5. Which of the following statements about UES dysfunction are correct? A. This condition is diagnosed by the characteristic manometric findings of UES spasm. B. Typical symptoms include cervical dysphagia, expectoration of saliva, and hoarseness. C. The classic finding on barium esophagogram is a posterior cricopharyngeal bar. D. Medical or surgical therapy of gastroesophageal reflux may be curative. E. A cervical esophagomyotomy for UES dysfunction should be limited to 2 to 3 cm. in length so that normal muscle is not damaged. Answer: BCD 6. Which of the following statements about achalasia is/are correct? A. In most cases in North America the cause is a parasitic infestation by Trypanosoma cruzi. B. Chest pain and regurgitation are the usual symptoms. C. Distal-third esophageal adenocarcinomas may occur in as many as 20% of patients within 10 years of diagnosis. D. Manometry demonstrates failure of LES relaxation on swallowing and absent or weak simultaneous contractions in the esophageal body after swallowing. E. Endoscopic botulinum toxin injection of the LES, pneumatic dilatation, and esophagomyotomy provide highly effective curative therapy for achalasia. Answer: D 7. Which of the following statements about diffuse esophageal spasm is/are true? A. Chest pain due to esophageal spasm is readily differentiated from angina pectoris of cardiac origin. B. Bouts of esophageal obstruction and regurgitation of food are characteristic. C. Associated psychiatric disorders are common. D. During manometric assessment, unless the patient is having pain there may be no detectable multiphasic, high-amplitude, simultaneous esophageal contractions. E. The treatment of choice is a long esophagomyotomy from the aortic arch to the esophagogastric junction. Answer: CD 8. Which of the following statements about epiphrenic diverticula of the esophagus is/are correct? A. They are traction diverticula that arise close to the tracheobronchial tree. B. They characteristically arise proximal to an esophageal reflux stricture. C. The degree of dysphagia correlates with the size of the pouch. D. They are best approached surgically through a right thoracotomy. E. The operation of choice is a stapled diverticulectomy, long esophagomyotomy, and partial fundoplication. Answer: E 9. Which of the following statements about Schatzki's ring is correct? A. The ring represents a panmural fibrotic stricture resulting from gastroesophageal reflux. B. Dysphagia occurs when the ring diameter is 13 mm. or less. C. The ring occurs within 1 to 2 cm. of the squamocolumnar epithelial junction. D. Schatzki's ring indicates reflux esophagitis. E. Schatzki's ring signifies the need for an antireflux operation. Answer: B 10. Choose the distance in centimeters from the upper incisor teeth at which the following radiographically identified esophageal lesions would be encountered endoscopically: A. 10 cm. 1. Zenker's diverticulum B. 15 cm. 2. Traction diverticulum C. 25 cm. 3. Tumor 10 cm. proximal to the esophagogastric junction D. 30 cm. E. 40 cm. Answer: 1-B, 2-C, 3-D

ESOPHAGUS-STOMACH-DUODENUM SURGERY MCQs 11. Which of the following statements about pathology encountered at esophagoscopy is/are correct? A. Reflux esophagitis should be graded as mild, moderate, or severe, to promote consistency among different observers. B. An esophageal reflux stricture with a 2-mm. lumen is not dilatable and is best treated with resection. C. A newly diagnosed radiographic distal esophageal stricture warrants dilation and antireflux medical therapy. D. In patients with Barrett's mucosa, the squamocolumnar epithelial junction occurs 3 cm. or more proximal to the anatomic esophagogastric junction. E. After fasting at least 12 hours, a patient with megaesophagus of achalasia can safely undergo flexible fiberoptic esophagoscopy. Answer: D 12. Which of the following statements about the diagnosis and treatment of esophageal leiomyomas is/are correct? A. The majority are diagnosed after they cause dysphagia and chest pain. B. Biopsy is indicated at the time of esophagoscopy, to rule out carcinoma. C. Full-thickness elliptical excision of the esophageal wall is the preferred surgical approach. D. Endoscopic ultrasonography is a reliable means of following leiomyomas conservatively. E. Recurrence of resected leiomyomas is minimized by wide local excision. Answer: D 13. Which of the following statements regarding the pathology of esophageal carcinoma is/are correct? A. Worldwide, adenocarcinoma is the most common esophageal malignancy. B. Squamous cell carcinoma is most common in the distal esophagus, whereas adenocarcinoma predominates in the middle third. C. Patients with Barrett's metaplasia are 40 times more likely than the general population to develop adenocarcinoma. D. Metastases from esophageal carcinoma are characteristically localized to regional mediastinal lymph nodes adjacent to the tumor. E. Achalasia, radiation esophagitis, caustic esophageal stricture, Barrett's mucosa, and Plummer-Vinson syndrome are all premalignant esophageal lesions that predispose to the development of squamous cell carcinoma. Answer: C 14. Which of the following statements about the surgical treatment of esophageal carcinoma is/are correct? A. The finding of severe dysphagia in association with Barrett's mucosa is an indication for an antireflux operation to prevent subsequent development of carcinoma. B. Long-term survival is improved by radical en bloc resection of the esophagus with its contained tumor, adjacent mediastinal tissues, and regional lymph nodes. C. The morbidity and mortality rates for cervical esophagogastric anastomotic leak are substantially less than those associated with intrathoracic esophagogastric anastomotic leak. D. The leading complications of transthoracic esophagectomy and intrathoracic esophagogastric anastomosis are bleeding and wound infection. E. Transhiatal esophagectomy without thoracotomy achieves better long-term survival than transthoracic esophagectomy. Answer: C 15. The best management for a 48-hour-old distal esophageal perforation is: A. Antibiotics and drainage. B. Division of the esophagus and exclusion of the perforation. C. Primary repair with buttressing. D. Resection with cervical esophagostomy, gastrostomy, and jejunostomy. E. T-tube fistula and drainage. Answer: C 16. A 50-year-old patient develops sudden left lower chest pain and epigastric pain after vomiting. The patient shows diaphoresis, breath sounds are decreased on the left, and there is abdominal guarding. The most appropriate diagnostic test is: A. Aortography. B. Esophagoscopy. C. Electrocardiogram. D. Film of the chest. E. White blood count. Answer: D 17. The following statements about the influence of diet and lifestyle on lower esophageal sphincter (LES) function are true except one. Identify the incorrect statement. A. A high-protein diet increases LES pressure. B. A fat meal results in sustained decrease in LES pressure. C. Chocolate ingestion causes a decrease in LES pressure. D. Peppermint produces a transient decrease in LES values. E. Cigarette smoking produces no significant changes in LES pressures. Answer: E 18. When a stricture is present in association with gastroesophageal reflux, each of the following is an acceptable repair for reflux control except one. Identify the poorest repair. A. Intrathoracic total fundoplication. B. Lengthening gastroplasty with total fundoplication. C. Total fundoplication. D. Lengthening gastroplasty with partial fundoplication. E. Partial fundoplication. Answer: E 19. When assessing gastroesophageal reflux disease by manometry each of the following statements is correct except one. Identify the incorrect one. A. Absent or extremely low LES pressures have predictive value in identifying more severe reflux. B. Peristaltic dysfunction increases with increasing severity of esophagitis. C. With established reflux disease the UES is hypertensive. D. Esophageal functional changes are worst in patients with a circumferential columnar-lined esophagus. E. Absence of peristalsis may be associated with more severe forms of reflux disease. Answer: C 20. The presence of a nonmalignant mid- or upper esophageal stricture always indicates the presence of: A. Alkaline reflux esophagitis. B. Barrett's esophagus. C. Idiopathic reflux disease. D. Mediastinal fibrosis. E. Scleroderma. Answer: B 21. Which of the following is most reliable for confirming the occurrence of a significant esophageal caustic injury? A. History of the event. B. Physical examination of the patient. C. Barium esophagraphy. D. Endoscopy. Answer: D 22. Indications for surgical reconstruction of the esophagus include which of the following? A. Continuing requirement for frequent dilation of an extensive esophageal stricture for a minimum of 2 years. B. Failure or refusal of the patient to comply with a treatment regimen of regular dilation. C. Development of a fistula between the esophagus and tracheobronchial tree. D. Iatrogenic perforation of the esophagus during attempted dilation. Answer: BCD 23. First-line therapy for routine peptic duodenal ulcer disease includes: A. Vagotomy and antrectomy. B. Upper endoscopy and biopsy to rule out tumor. C. Evaluation for Helicobacter pylori. D. Serum gastrin determination. E. Cream or milk-based “Sippy” diet. Answer: C 24. Appropriate management of severe vomiting associated with gastric outlet obstruction from peptic ulcer disease includes all of the following except: A. Nasogastric suction. B. Intravenous hydration. C. Nutritional assessment; upper endoscopy to rule out malignancy. D. Intravenous H 2 antagonist. E. Oral antacid therapy. Answer: E 25. All of the following are complications of peptic ulcer surgery except: A. Duodenal stump blowout. B. Dumping. C. Diarrhea. D. Delayed gastric emptying. E. Steatorrhea. Answer: E 26. The presentation of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Hyperparathyroidism in patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1) syndrome. B. Diarrhea. C. Migratory rash. D. Jejunal ulcers. E. Duodenal ulcers. Answer: C 27. All are true about the dumping syndrome except: A. Symptoms can be controlled with a somatostatin analog. B. Diarrhea is always part of the dumping syndrome. C. Flushing and tachycardia are common features of the syndrome. D. Separating solids and liquids in the patient's oral intake alleviates some of the symptoms of the syndrome. E. Early postoperative dumping after vagotomy often resolves spontaneously. Answer: B 28. In patients with bleeding duodenal ulcers, the endoscopic finding associated with the highest incidence of rebleeding is: A. Visible vessel. B. Cherry-red spot. C. Clean ulcer bed. D. Duodenitis. E. Shallow, 3-mm. ulcer. Answer: A 29. All of the following are contraindications for highly selective vagotomy except: A. Intractable duodenal ulcer disease. B. Peptic ulcer disease causing gastric outlet obstruction. C. Fundic peptic ulceration. D. Cigarette chain smoking. E. Perforated peptic ulcer disease with more than 24 hours' soilage. Answer: A 30. All the following are true of omeprazole except: B. It works by blocking the hydrogen-potassium ATPase in the parietal cell. C. It is parietal cell specific. D. It has a short half-life (about 90 minutes) when taken orally. E. It has been associated with gastric neoplasm in a rat model. Answer: D 31. All of the following statements about gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP) are true except: A. In species other than man and dog GRP is commonly referred to as bombesin. B. GRP serves as a neurotransmitter. C. GRP inhibits pancreatic secretion when given intravenously. D. GRP stimulates gastric acid secretion when given intravenously. E. GRP is released in response to cholinergic stimulation of the parietal cells to stimulate release of gastrin. Answer: C 32. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is believed to function in all of the following processes except: A. It physiologically delays gastric emptying. B. It appears to have a role in satiety regulation. C. It contracts the gallbladder. D. It stimulates pancreatic secretion. E. It is important in the control of the anal sphincter. Answer: E 33. All of the following measures have been recommended for control of acid secretion in patients with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Antrectomy. B. Highly selective vagotomy. C. Total gastrectomy. D. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty. E. Medical therapy with Prilosec (omeprazole). Answer: A 34. All of the following contribute to peptic ulcer disease except: A. Cigarette smoking. C. Helicobacter pylori. D. Gastrinoma. E. Spicy foods. Answer: E 35. Which of the following statements about gastric polyps is/are true? A. Like their colonic counterparts, gastric epithelial polyps are common tumors. B. They are analogous to colorectal polyps in natural history. C. Endoscopy can uniformly predict the histology of a polyp based on location and appearance. D. In a given patient, multiple polyps are generally of a single histologic type. E. Gastric adenomatous polyps greater than 2 cm. in diameter should be excised because of the risk of malignant transformation. Answer: DE 36. Which of the following statements about gastric leiomyomas is/are true? A. They are the most common type of gastric tumor of the stomach at autopsy. B. The leiomyoblastoma cell type reflects malignant transformation of gastric leiomyomas. C. A conservative surgical approach is indicated for their resection since regional lymphadenectomy has not been proved reliable even when they turn out to be malignant. D. Severe hemorrhage may occur from deep ulcerations overlying the intramural tumor. Answer: ACD 37. The sine qua non of the histologic diagnosis of a gastric pseudolymphoma is: A. Extragastric extension of the gastric lesion. B. Nodal involvement beyond the immediate stomach. C. A germinal center in the gastric lesion. D. Extension into esophagus and duodenum. E. Unresponsive to conservative gastric resection. Answer: C 38. All of the following statements about surgical management of gastric lymphomas are true except: A. Stage I gastric lymphomas (small lesions confined to the stomach wall) can be cured completely with surgical therapy alone. B. Extensive gastric lymphomas that initially are treated with radiation and/or chemotherapy occasionally perforate during treatment and require secondary resection. C. Patients explored with a presumptive diagnosis of gastric lymphoma should undergo an attempt at curative resection when this is safe and feasible. D. Without a preoperative diagnosis resection for gastric mass should not be attempted unless lymphoma can be excluded. E. Appropriate staging for primary gastric lymphoma includes bone marrow biopsy. Answer: D 39. Which of the following risk factors have been shown to increase significantly the incidence of gastrointestinal bleeding from stress gastritis in intensive care unit (ICU) patients? A. Glucocorticoid administration. B. Respiratory failure. C. Coagulopathy. D. Organ transplantation. E. Jaundice. Answer: BC 40. Which of the following measures are effective in preventing stress gastritis bleeding in critically ill patients? A. Improving systemic circulation by correcting any shocklike state resulting from blood loss or sepsis. B. Correcting systemic acid-base abnormality. C. Maintaining adequate nutrition. D. Reducing intragastric acidity by either antacid titration or H 2 antagonists. Answer: ABCD 41. Which of the following have been used successfully to treat patients with vascular compression of the duodenum? A. Subtotal gastrectomy and Roux-en-Y gastrojejunostomy. B. Total parenteral nutrition. C. Division of the ligament of Treitz and duodenal mobilization. D. Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy. E. Duodenojejunostomy. Answer: BCE 42. Which of the following statements about the anatomic basis for the syndrome of vascular compression of the duodenum are true? A. The duodenum is obstructed in its distal third as it crosses over the lumbar vertebral column. B. Structures crossing beneath the superior mesenteric artery include the duodenum, the uncinate process of the pancreas, and the left renal vein. C. Hyperextension of the back allows the angle of origin of the superior mesenteric artery to widen, lessening the obstruction of the duodenum. D. Patients are at significant risk for vascular compression of the duodenum if the angle between the takeoff of the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta is less than 45 degrees. E. Arteriographic studies show a typical area of extrinsic compression and narrowing of the arterial lumen due to duodenal pressure. Answer: AB 43. Numerous epidemiologic associations have been made between (1) environmental and dietary factors and (2) the incidence of gastric cancer, including all except: A. Dietary nitrites. B. Dietary salt. C. Helicobacter pylori infection. D. Dietary ascorbic acid. Answer: D 44. All of the following benign conditions are associated with increased rates of gastric cancer except: A. Pernicious anemia. B. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type I (MEN 1). C. Adenomatous polyps. D. Chronic atrophic gastritis. Answer: B 45. Which of the following statements concerning the pathology of gastric cancer is true? A. Distal gastric cancers are becoming more common. B. Intestinal-type gastric tumors resemble colon carcinomas and have a better prognosis than diffuse type. C. Early gastric cancers are confined to the mucosa and are lymph node negative. D. Broders' histologic grading system correlates well with survival: patients with grade IV tumors have 5-year survival rates around 65%. Answer: B 46. An 80% distal gastrectomy is performed for a 6-cm. antral cancer with extension to the muscularis propria and three positive lymph nodes less than 3 cm. from the tumor. The stage of this tumor was: A. Stage I. B. Stage II. C. Stage III A. D. Stage III B. Answer: B 47. Which of the following statements about the surgical treatment of gastric cancer is false? A. Patients with tumors of the middle and proximal thirds should undergo total gastrectomy. B. Adenocarcinoma of the cardia-gastroesophageal junction may require reconstruction in the abdomen, chest, or neck. C. Palliative resection yields better results than palliative bypass. D. Japanese patients who undergo gastric resection are, on average, 10 years younger and much leaner than their Western counterparts. Answer: A 48. Which of the following measures of obesity correlates best with mortality? A. The 1983 Metropolitan Life Insurance Company tables for ideal body weight. B. Hydroimmersion measurements of body fat composition. C. Body mass index (BMI). D. Skinfold thickness. E. Waist to hip ratios (WHR). Answer: C 49. The most effective therapy for morbid obesity, in terms of weight control, is: A. Intensive dieting with behavior modification. C. A gastric bypass with a 40-ml. pouch, a 10- to 20-cm. Roux-en-Y gastroenterostomy. D. A gastric bypass with a 15-ml. pouch, a 40- to 60-cm. Roux-en-Y gastroenterostomy. E. Daily exercise with strong emphasis on utilizing all four limbs. Answer: D 50. Which of the following statements about intestinal bypass is/are correct? A. The operation produced weight loss similar to that of the gastric bypass. B. The operation produced severe metabolic disturbances, including hypocalcemia, increased bile salts and glycine synthesis. C. Bacterial overgrowth in the bypassed segment led to liver failure. D. The operation demonstrated that an adult human could survive with 40 to 50 cm. of small intestine. Answer: ABCD 51. Which of the following is/are contraindications to gastric bypass surgery? A. Diabetes mellitus. B. Hypertension. C. Pickwickian syndrome. D. Failure to agree to long-term follow-up. E. Sleep apnea. Answer: D 52. A 34-year-old morbidly obese diabetic woman underwent a gastric bypass about 12 hours ago. The operation was technically difficult but finally went well. You are called because she now has a temperature of 99.2? F, pulse of 134, and some pain in her incision and her back. She looks well; the incision is clean; and her examination is otherwise negative. A bolus of 500 ml. of dextrose/lactated Ringer's did not change her vital signs, except that her pulse rose to 140 without an increase in urine output. Your next step should be: A. Another bolus of crystalloids. B. Posterioanterior and lateral chest films. C. Obtain white cell count, differential count, and electrolyte values. D. Call the operating room and warn them that you need to re-explore for a leak. E. Increase her pain medication. Answer: D 53. Metabolic complications of subtotal gastrectomy with Billroth I or Billroth II reconstruction include: A. Hypothyroidism. B. Anemia. C. Reactive hypoglycemia. D. Dumping syndrome. E. Metabolic bone disease. Answer: BCDE 54. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the surgical options for an anti-reflux operation is/are true? a. A patient with normal esophageal length and esophageal body motility is best served by laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication b. A patient with a low peristaltic amplitude of the distal third of the esophagus is a candidate for an open Nissen fundoplication c. A Collis gastroplasty is an additional procedure that can be added in patients with extensive esophageal shortening d. End-stage reflux disease such as an undilatable stricture or Barrett’s esophagus with high grade dysplagia is best managed by a colon interposition Answer: a, c, d 55. Factors associated with the development of complications of gastroesophageal reflux disease include: a. The presence of a defective lower esophageal sphincter b. Inadequate esophageal clearance c. The presence of a hiatal hernia d. The presence of an alkaline component of the reflux material Answer: a, b, c, d 56. Fundamental to understanding disorders of esophageal function is the measurement of the contractility of the esophageal body and sphincters. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning esophageal manometry in the investigation of benign esophageal disease? a. A defective sphincter is predictive of poor long-term response to medical therapy, but a good response to surgery b. Esophageal manometry can determine the resting pressure and the overall length of the sphincter but not its abdominal length c. The LES pressure normally drops to gastric baseline immediately after a swallow before the peristaltic wave reaches the lower esophagus d. A Vector Volume below the fifth percentile of normal is the most sensitive measure of mechanical deficiency of the LES e. There is no correlation between defects in LES with the severity of gastroesophageal reflux disease Answer: a, c, d 57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the diagnosis and management of the patient whose barium esophogram is shown in Figure 18-29? a. The condition is due to neuronal generation of the myenteric plexus in the lower esophageal sphincter b. The patient will report symptoms of vomiting of sour or bitter material c. Despite the impressive radiologic picture, passage of the endoscope through the area of narrowing will likely be possible d. Manometry and 24 hour pH monitoring should be performed for confirmation of the diagnosis Answer: c 58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning other tests available for investigation of esophageal disease? a. A 24 hour pH monitoring is currently the principal method in making the diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) b. Acid reflux episodes are defined as periods when the esophageal pH is less than 2 c. Twenty-four pH monitoring is only useful in the detection of acid reflux disease d. The Bernstein test continues to be an important tool in the diagnosis of acid reflux disease e. Delayed gastric emptying may be an important etiologic factor in patients with GERD Answer: a, e 59. The results for anti-reflux surgery are generally good, however, patients who have failed anti-reflux procedures constitute a particularly challenging group. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning failed anti-reflux repairs? a. A Slipped Nissen is usually the result of an operative technical mistake b. Disruption of a fundoplication is more prone to occur with a Nissen fundoplication because of the use of the gastric wall in the repair c. Postoperative dysphagia in a patient with normal preoperative motility is usually due to a secondary motility disorder d. Colonic replacement, although technically challenging, usually has superior long-term results when compared to esophageal replacement with the stomach Answer: a, d 60. A number of diagnostic modalities exist for investigation of structural abnormalities of the esophagus. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the use of these investigative studies? a. Endoscopy should be the first investigation in any patient with foregut symptoms b. Barrett’s esophagus is suggested when the squamo-columnar junction is more than 2 cm above the gastroesophageal junction on endoscopic examination c. There are three areas of esophageal narrowing which can be noted on both barium esophogram and endoscopy d. The CT appearance of the esophagus is normally a flattened, hollow structure with a thin wall Answer: b, c, d ESOPHAGUS-STOMACH-DUODENUM SURGERY Objective type Questions with Answers 61. Which of the following patient scenarios would be best managed with anti-reflux surgery? a. A patient with heartburn but normal 24 hour pH monitoring and an intact lower esophageal sphincter b. A patient with primarily respiratory manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux c. A patient with increased acid exposure and a mechanically defective sphincter who responds well to medical therapy but requires continued long-term medication for continued relief d. A patient with gastroesophageal reflux but excessive complaints of epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite Answer: b, c 62. Which of the following statement(s) concerning pharyngoesophageal disorders is/are true? a. In neuromuscular diseases, dysphagia is often worse for liquids than for solids b. Cricomyotomy may be indicated for a wide variety of neuromuscular disorders involving the pharyngoesophageal phase of swallowing c. Excision of a Zenker’s diverticulum is indicated to prevent malignant change in the sac d. Complications of all operations on the cervical esophagus include hematoma formation and recurrent nerve paralysis Answer: a, b, d 63. Barrett’s esophagus is a complication of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. The histologic hallmark is the presence of “specialized” columnar epithelium regardless of how far it extends into the esophagus b. Barrett’s epithelium will frequently regress with medical therapy or anti-reflux surgery c. High grade dysplasia will frequently be associated with foci of invasive carcinoma d. Patients with adenocarcinoma arising in Barrett’s esophagus have a high incidence of p53 gene mutations Answer: a, c, d 64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the blood supply and lymphatic drainage of the esophagus? a. The thoracic esophagus receives no direct branches from the aorta therefore allowing the technique of transhiatal (blunt) esophagectomy b. Bleeding esophageal varices are most prominent in the mid-esophagus c. Lymphatic drainage of the lower third of the esophagus goes entirely to the abdominal lymphatic system d. Nodal involvement in esophageal cancer is quite common even if the tumor is limited to the level of the submucosa Answer: d 65. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the process of swallowing and esophageal transit of food? a. Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerves can cause motility problems of the cervical esophagus and resulting aspiration b. Esophageal reflux does not lead to impaired esophageal motility c. Relaxation of the LES is mediated via inhibitory neurons d. The overall length of the LES is the only factor influencing the pressure gradient of the sphincter e. A mechanically defective sphincter is always associated with increased esophageal acid exposure Answer: a, c 66. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of this patient? a. The risk of perforation of the esophagus associated with balloon dilatation may be as high as 10% b. An anti-reflux procedure should be universally performed for any operative myotomy c. Successful relief of dysphagia can be achieved in up to 90% of patients with a single pneumatic dilatation d. Thoracoscopic myotomy is associated with significantly poorer results than the open procedure e. Prospective randomized studies and retrospective data appear to support a surgical approach for achalasia Answer: a, e 67. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the surgical anatomy of the esophagus? a. Surgical exposure of the cervical esophagus is best gained via the right neck b. Spontaneous esophageal perforation tends to be associated with leakage into the left chest c. Access to the entire thoracic esophagus can be obtained only via the left chest d. The lower esophageal sphincter can be recognized distinctly by inspection of the gastroesophageal junction Answer: b 68. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the patient whose barium esophogram is shown below? a. The patient’s complaint would be primarily chest pain and to a lesser degree dysphagia b. The pathognomic feature of manometry is the presence of prolonged high amplitude waves c. The patient will likely experience nutritional problems d. The first line of treatment for this patient is surgical myotomy Answer: a, b 69. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tracheoesophageal fistulas? a. The majority of acquired tracheoesophageal fistulas are due to malignant disease b. A water-soluble contrast esophogram should be obtained for diagnosis c. Malignant tracheoesophageal fistulas represent one of the few indications for an endoesophageal prosthesis d. A benign tracheoesophageal fistula from an endotracheal intubation injury often requires a thoracotomy for repair Answer: a, c 70. Esophageal cysts arise as outpouchings of the embryonic foregut. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning esophageal cysts? a. The cyst lining will be lined only by stratified squamous epithelium b. Most esophageal cysts cause symptoms in the first year of life c. An asymptomatic esophageal cyst can be managed conservatively d. The diagnosis of an esophageal cyst is usually made radiographically Answer: b, d 71. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning infectious esophagitis? a. Candida albicans is not normally found in the mouth but results from the overgrowth of this fungus in patients on broad spectrum antibiotics b. Candida esophagitis is usually self-limited and is seldom associated with chronic problems c. Systemic therapy is seldom indicated d. Small ulcers on barium esophogram in a transplant patient complaining of dysphagia and odynophagia are likely due to herpes simplex viral infection Answer: d 72. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pathology of squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus? a. Carcinoma in situ will gradually progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma over a period of two to four years b. The most common location for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus is the upper and mid-thoracic segment c. Esophageal carcinoma tends to be multifocal d. Macroscopically, ulcerative lesions with extensive infiltration of the adjacent esophageal wall are most common e. Lymph node metastases are present in at least 75% of patients at the time of initial diagnosis Answer: a, b, d, e 73. A 54-year-old woman experiences pain in both the anterior and posterior left chest and the epigastrium following balloon dilatation performed for achalasia. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this patient’s diagnosis and management? a. A normal chest x-ray will rule out an esophageal perforation b. Barium should never be used in performance of a contrast study with a diagnosis of esophageal perforation c. Conservative, nonoperative treatment may be indicated d. If surgical repair is necessary, the patient should undergo esophagomyotomy and a partial gastric fundoplication Answer: c, d 74. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the diagnostic studies for esophageal carcinoma? a. A chest and upper abdominal CT scan is useful for both staging and predicting resectability b. A barium swallow is an unnecessary test in a patient with dysphagia c. Bronchoscopy should be performed in all patients with carcinoma of the upper and middle thirds of the esophagus d. Bone and brain scans should be obtained routinely to rule out distant metastasis e. Endoscopic ultrasound is a potentially sensitive examination for the staging of esophageal cancer Answer: c, e 75. Which of the following conditions are associated with the development of esophageal carcinoma? a. Caustic esophageal stricture b. Achalasia of the esophagus c. Plummer-Vinson syndrome d. Esophageal diverticula Answer: a, b, c, d 76. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the options for resection of esophageal carcinoma? a. The development of reflux esophagitis seldom occurs following intrathoracic resection due to the limited life expectancy of these patients b. Transhiatal esophagectomy, although conceptually sound, is not technically possible in most patients with esophageal carcinoma c. Transhiatal resection, although less morbid, has unfavorable survival statistics compared to transthoracic resection d. Radical transthoracic esophagectomy with en bloc dissection of continuous lymph node bearing tissues has not been shown to improve survival over transhiatal esophagectomy Answer: d 77. The incidence of adenocarcinoma of the esophagus is increasing at a very rapid rate, which is largely the result of the growing prevalence of adenocarcinoma arising in Barrett’s mucosa. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning adenocarcinoma of the esophagus? a. Barrett’s mucosa with specialized columnar epithelium characterized by veliform folds, lined by secreting columnar and goblet cells has the highest association with carcinoma of the esophagus b. Less than 5% of patients with Barrett’s mucosa will harbor adenocarcinoma c. Severe dysplasia of Barrett’s mucosa requires frequent reexamination and biopsy d. Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus has a less aggressive behavior than squamous cell carcinoma Answer: a 78. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning esophageal diverticula? a. A Zenker’s diverticulum characteristically occurs in older patients b. Mediastinal granulomatous disease usually results in a mid-esophageal traction diverticulum which is usually asymptomatic c. An epiphrenic diverticulum that presents to the right of the esophagus should be managed via left thoracotomy d. Minimally symptomatic epiphrenic diverticula should not be operated upon Answer: b, c, d 79. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning caustic injury to the esophagus? a. Alkaline injury is more destructive than acid injury b. Acid ingestion is not injurious to the stomach due to its normal acidic pH c. Ingested caustic agents rapidly pass through the esophagus and stomach into the small intestine d. Unless perforation occurs, clinical manifestations resolve quickly with initial clinical improvement noted e. Children are less likely to form a late esophageal stricture than adults Answer: a, d, e 80. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning nonresectional therapy for esophageal carcinoma? a. Radiation therapy can be associated with five-year survival rates equal to surgery b. Esophageal intubation to provide palliation for esophageal cancer is associated with minimal morbidity and mortality c. Endoscopic laser fulguration is successful in up to 75% of patients d. There is little or no role for surgical bypass for unresectable esophageal carcinoma Answer: c, d 81. Benign tumors of the esophagus are rare constituting less than 1% of esophageal neoplasms. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning benign esophageal neoplasms? a. Most esophageal polyps are located just above the gastroesophageal junction b. Malignant degeneration of leiomyomas of the esophagus is a frequent occurrence c. An asymptomatic leiomyoma can be safely observed and followed with periodic barium esophograms and endoscopic ultrasonography d. Most leiomyomas of the esophagus require esophagectomy Answer: c 82. In an effort to improve survival following esophageal resection, trials of multi-modality therapy in combination with surgery have been completed. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning such treatment? a. Therapy appears to be indicated in squamous cell carcinoma but not adenocarcinoma b. No residual carcinoma may be found in the resected specimen in up to 20% of patients c. Nonrandomized trials would suggest improved survival compared to patients receiving surgery alone d. Perioperative morbidity is increased due to preoperative radiation and chemotherapy Answer: b, c, 83. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the management of a patient with a caustic esophageal or gastric injury? a. Corticosteroids should be administered immediately b. Complete endoscopic examination of the esophagus and stomach should be completed c. Patients requiring operative intervention are best explored through the abdomen d. If organ resection is indicated, restoration of alimentary continuity should be deferred until the patient has recovered from the acute insult e. In patients with esophageal stricture following second and third degree burns, dilatation therapy should be instituted as soon as possible after the injury Answer: b, c, d 84. In regard to the arterial blood supply to the stomach, which of the following statement(s) is/are true? a. The right gastric artery, a branch of the superior mesenteric artery, supplies the gastric antrum b. Because of rich intramural collaterals, gastric viability may be preserved after ligation of all but one major artery c. In cases of celiac artery occlusion, gastric viability is maintained collaterally via pancreaticoduodenal arcades d. The left gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the celiac trunk Answer: b, c 85. At a cellular level, the major stimulant(s) of acid secretion by the gastric parietal cell is/are: a. Histamine b. Prostaglandin E2 c. Acetylcholine d. Gastrin e. Norepinephrine Answer: a, c, d 86. Which of the following statement(s) regarding the vagus nerves is/are true? a. The right and left vagus nerves derive from a nerve plexus inferior to the tracheal bifurcation b. The posterior vagus nerve is closely applied to the intrathoracic esophagus c. The anterior vagus supplies a hepatic division which passes to the right in the lesser omentum d. Approximately 90% of vagal fibers are afferent, transmitting information from the gastrointestinal tract to the central nervous system e. The vagus nerves transmit gastroduodenal pain sensations associated with peptic ulceration Answer: a, c, d 87. Important stimulants of gastrin release from endocrine cells in the antrum include: a. Acidification of the antral lumen b. Small peptide fragments and amino acids from luminal proteolysis c. Locally released somatostatin d. Dietary fats Answer: b 88. Which of the following statements regarding human gastric acid secretion is/are true? a. Fasting acid secretion, normally 2 to 5 mEq/h, is due to ambient vagal tone and histamine secretion b. Truncal vagotomy decreases basal secretion by 80% c. Histamine2 receptor antagonist administration can decrease basal acid secretion by 80% d. Fasting acid secretion, normally 5 to 10 mEq/h, is due to circulating levels of gastrin Answer: a, b, c 89. As a meal is emptied from the stomach, gastric acid secretion gradually returns to baseline. Which of the following statements correctly characterize control of gastric acid secretion? a. In humans, the most important inhibitory influence on gastrin release is exposure of the gastric mucosa to luminal acid b. Acidification of the antral lumen causes reciprocal increases in somatostatin release and decreases in gastrin secretion c. Antral distension stimulates gastric acid secretion d. Acidification of the duodenal bulb inhibits gastric acid secretion e. Exposure of the duodenum to hyperosmolar solutions inhibits acid secretion Answer: a, b, d, e 90. Which of the following statements correctly characterizes gastric motor activity associated with ingestion of a meal? a. Ingested gastric volumes are accommodated with little increase in pressure by reflex relaxation of the proximal stomach b. Receptive gastric accommodation is unaffected by proximal gastric vagotomy c. In humans, liquid emptying occurs more quickly than solid emptying d. Gastric emptying of liquids is not affected by proximal gastric vagotomy Answer: a, c 91. It is widely agreed that the gastric mucosa secretes bicarbonate in addition to acid. Gastric secretion of bicarbonate is correctly characterized by which of the following statements? a. Bicarbonate is secreted by chief cells within gastric crypts b. Gastric bicarbonate secretion is stimulated by acetylcholine c. Gastric bicarbonate secretion during fasting results in luminal pH above 6 in normal individuals d. Prostaglandin E2 is a potent stimulant of gastric bicarbonate secretion Answer: b, d 92. Gastric mucosal blood flow is regulated by neural, hormonal, and locally active influences. Which of the following statements correctly characterizes gastric blood flow? a. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves supplying the stomach is followed by gastric mucosal hyperemia and increased total gastric blood flow b. Vagal nerve stimulation is accompanied by decreased gastric mucosal blood flow c. Stimulants that increase acid secretion increase mucosal blood flow d. In humans, prostaglandins increase mucosal blood flow at doses that inhibit gastric acid secretion Answer: c, d 93. Which of the following statements regarding intrinsic factor is/are correct? a. Intrinsic factor is produced in chief cells located in the gastric fundus b. Total gastrectomy is followed by folate deficiency due to vitamin malabsorption secondary to intrinsic factor deficiency c. Intrinsic factor secretion, like that of acid, is stimulated by gastrin, histamine, and acetylcholine d. Intrinsic factor deficiency accompanies H pylori-caused antral gastritis Answer: c 94. A 24-year-old woman develops epigastric pain and has a diagnosis of duodenal ulcer confirmed by esophagogastroduodenoscopy. The patient is in the third month of a pregnancy. The most appropriate treatment would be: a. Proximal gastric vagotomy b. Misoprostol 400 mg b.i.d. c. Sucralfate 1 gm q.i.d. d. Cimetidine 400 mg b.i.d. Answer: c 95. Helicoabacter pylori has been investigated as a possible etiologic agent in duodenal ulceration. Which of the following statement(s) regarding H pylori infection in humans is/are correct? a. H pylori may be isolated from antral gastric mucosa in nearly 100% of patients with active duodenal ulceration but only 1–2% of normal volunteers b. H pylori possess cell surface receptors that bind to small intestinal mucous cells c. Therapeutic regimens for duodenal ulcer that eliminate the organism are associated with lower ulcer recurrence rates than those in which the organism persists d. The incidence of the organism in the normal population increases with age e. Antral gastritis is associated with development of duodenal ulcer Answer: c, d, e 96. A 40-year-old male undergoes treatment of acute duodenal ulceration with cimetidine 400 mg b.i.d. and has resolution of symptoms by 6 weeks. The medication is continued as a nocturnal maintenance dose at the end of a three month treatment course. Recurrent symptoms develop 6 months after initial diagnosis and repeated endoscopic examination reveals recurrent ulceration. Biopsies of antral mucosa demonstrate moderate gastritis and the presence of H pylori. Medical management designed to eradicate H pylori and heal ulceration should include which of the following agents? a. Cimetidine b. Bismuth subcitrate c. Amoxicillin d. Metronidazole e. Vancomycin Answer: a, b, c, d 97. Development of duodenal ulceration is dependent upon gastric acid secretion. Which of the following statements correctly characterizes acid secretion in duodenal ulcer patients? a. Groups of duodenal ulcer patients demonstrate decreased basal acid secretion b. Maximal acid output to histamine averages 40 mEq/h in duodenal ulcer patients, twice that of normal c. Tissue gastrin levels, on average, are twice normal in patients with active ulceration d. Exogenously administered somatostatin is ineffective in suppressing acid secretion in patients with active ulceration Answer: b 98. A 45-year-old man undergoes proximal gastric vagotomy for treatment of intractable duodenal ulceration. What physiologic alterations might be anticipated as a consequence of the operation? a. Reduction of basal acid secretion by approximately 25% b. Accelerated gastric emptying of liquids c. Accelerated gastric emptying of solids d. Fasting hypergastrinemia e. Postprandial hyperinsulinemia Answer: b, d 99. Which of the following statements regarding postoperative rates of recurrent ulcer and dumping is/are correct? a. Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy is associated with persistent dumping in 10–15% of patients b. Recurrent ulceration following truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty is observed in 25% of patients within 10 years of operation c. Patients that undergo proximal gastric vagotomy have a risk of recurrent ulcer of 10–15% and a risk of persistent dumping approximating 1% d. Recurrent ulceration occurs in 5% of patients that undergo truncal vagotomy and antrectomy Answer: a, c 100. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to pyloric obstruction secondary to peptic ulceration? a. Pyloric obstruction is suggested by hypochloremic hyponatremic alkalosis b. Pyloric obstruction is suggested by hypochloremic hypokalemic alkalosis c. Approximately 80% of patients with benign gastric outlet obstruction obtain permanent relief of symptoms by endoscopically-directed balloon dilatation d. The lifetime risk of pyloric obstruction in peptic ulcer patients is 40% Answer: b 101. A 42-year-old man with a recently diagnosed duodenal ulcer develops melena and near-syncope. After fluid resuscitation, upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed. During the examination, a 1 cm ulcer is noted in the proximal duodenum. A fresh clot is observed within the ulcer and blood is noted to be oozing around the clot. Optimal therapy would consist of which of the following? a. Angiographic embolization of the gastroduodenal artery b. Irrigation of the clot followed by endoscopic application of a heat probe c. Transfusion and intravenous cimetidine d. Angiographic infusion of vasopressin into the gastroduodenal artery e. Transfusion and oral omeprazole Answer: b 102. A 50-year-old patient has undergone truncal vagotomy and antrectomy with Billroth II reconstruction two years ago. The patient now complains of recurrent postprandial pain, nausea, and vomiting. Endoscopic examination reveals bile in the stomach; endoscopic biopsies demonstrate histologic evidence of moderately severe gastritis. No other endoscopic abnormalities are noted. Appropriate therapy could include: a. Octreotide administration b. Total gastrectomy c. Conversion of Billroth II gastrojejunostomy to Billroth I gastroduodenostomy d. Conversion of Billroth II gastrojejunostomy to Roux-en-Y gastrojejunostomy e. Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy Answer: d 103. A 50-year-old male with a 2 year history of duodenal ulceration develops sudden, severe epigastric pain 4 hours prior to evaluation. Physical examination reveals T 101° F, pulse 80, BP 125/90, diminished bowel sounds, and abdominal muscular rigidity. An upright chest x-ray reveals pneumoperitoneum. At laparotomy, an anterior perforation in the first portion of the duodenum is observed. Optimal treatment would include: a. Omental patch of the perforation followed by truncal vagotomy and antrectomy after 8 weeks b. Omental patch of the perforation followed by truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty after 8 weeks c. Omental patch of the perforation followed by chronic cimetidine administration d. Omental patch of the perforation plus proximal gastric vagotomy e. Omental patch of the perforation only Answer: d 104. Which of the following clinical circumstances have been identified as predisposing factors for the development of stress ulceration? a. Intraperitoneal sepsis b. Hemorrhagic shock c. Isolated tibial fracture d. 50% total surface area second degree burn e. Adult respiratory distress syndrome Answer: a, b, d, e 105. Type I gastric ulcers are located in the gastric body, usually along the lesser curvature. Which of the following statements correctly characterize type I gastric ulcers? a. Normal to low acid secretion b. Associated duodenal ulceration c. High frequency of blood group A d. Associated hypergastrinemia frequent Answer: a, c 106. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding gastric ulcers greater than 3 cm in size? a. Giant gastric ulcers occur in 30–40% of cases along the greater curvature b. The risk of malignancy increases with increasing size of the ulcer c. The treatment of choice for giant gastric ulcer is resection to include the ulcer d. Giant gastric ulcer is a complication of intraarterial hepatic chemotherapy Answer: b, c 107. With regard to benign gastric ulceration, the most common location of disease is which of the following? a. Along the greater curvature b. Immediately distal to the esophagogastric junction along the lesser curvature c. In the area of the incisura angularis along the lesser curvature d. Within the gastric antrum Answer: c 108. Which of the following statement(s) regarding gastric mucosal defense is/are correct? a. Gastric mucus, produced by the surface epithelial cells, forms an unstirred layer over the gastric surface b. Gastric parietal cells produce a bicarbonate-rich fluid d. Gastric mucus provides substantial buffering capacity that maintains near-neutrality near the epithelial surface Answer: a 109. A 35-year-old smoker is involved in a house fire and receives a 45% total surface area burn. One half of the burned surface appears to be third degree. On the third post-burn day, the patient is noted to have bloody drainage from a nasogastric tube and a decrease of 5% in his hematocrit. Appropriate management should include which of the following? a. Urgent upper gastrointestinal contrast study to delineate site of bleeding b. Immediate selective arteriography via the left gastric artery to diagnose and treat presumed stress ulceration c. Urgent esophagogastroduodenoscopy to diagnosis the cause of bleeding d. Urgent intravenous infusion of vasopressin at 0.2–0.4 IU/min Answer: c 110. Agents demonstrated to have an efficacy of greater than 90% for prophylactic treatment of stress ulceration include which of the following? a. Antacids b. H2 receptor antagonists c. Sucralfate d. Misoprostil Answer: a, b, c 111. A 45-year-old male presents with symptoms of epigastric pain, worsened with ingestion of food. Physical examination is normal. Upper abdominal ultrasonography is unremarkable. Contrast radiography reveals a 2 cm ulcer in the gastric fundus along the lesser curvature. Therapy with omeprazole 20 mg per day is begun but symptoms persist 3 weeks later. Appropriate management includes which of the following? a. Increase in omeprazole dose to 40 mg per day b. Addition of sucralfate 1 gm every 8 hours c. Addition of cimetidine 200 mg b.i.d. d. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy with biopsy of ulceration Answer: d 112. A 52-year-old woman is hospitalized with acute upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Endoscopic examination reveal a 2.5 cm ulcer in the area of the incisura angularis. The remainder of the endoscopic examination is normal. Continued bleeding requires operative therapy. Optimal therapy consists of which of the following? a. Gastrotomy with oversewing of the bleeding site b. Distal gastrectomy including the area of ulceration c. Proximal gastric vagotomy and oversewing of the bleeding ulcer d. Truncal vagotomy, pyloroplasty, and oversewing of the bleeding ulcer Answer: b 113. A 25-year-old man is involved in an automobile accident with resultant injuries including bilateral closed femur fractures, left pulmonary contusion, and closed head injury. On post-injury day 4, significant upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage begins. Endoscopic examination reveals an area of confluent ulceration with bleeding in the gastric fundus. Endoscopic hemostasis fails. Appropriate immediate management includes: a. Lavage of gastric contents with iced saline b. Urgent total gastrectomy c. Selective arterial infusion of vasopressin via the left gastric artery d. Insertion of Sangstaken-Blakemore balloon Answer: c 114. Which of the following statements regarding gastroplasty and gastric bypass for morbid obesity is/are correct? a. Horizontal gastroplasty techniques that rely on a single horizontal application of a stapling device are associated with weight loss “failure” rates of 40% to 70% b. Gastric bypass is followed by progressive weight loss over a period of 36 months c. Gastric bypass is associated with a “failure” of weight loss in 10 to 15% of patients d. With three superimposed applications of a stapling device, gastric bypass staple line dehiscence occurs in less than 2% Answer: a, c, d 115. Severe obesity is associated with a large number of associated problems that form the basis of the term morbid obesity. Documented causes of excess mortality in severely obese patients include: a. Coronary artery disease b. Hypertension c. Adult-onset diabetes mellitus d. Obesity hypoventilation and sleep apnea e. Pulmonary embolization Answer: a, b, c, d, e 116. Jejunoileal bypass was formerly performed as a weight reduction procedure. The operation has now been abandoned due to the development of serious long-term complications associated with the procedure. Which of the following statements correctly characterize results following jejunoileal bypass? a. Kidney stones occur with increased frequency due to increased absorption of pyruvate from the colon b. The most serious complication of jejunoileal bypass is development of cirrhosis due to protein calorie malnutrition c. Bacterial overgrowth in the bypassed segment can be treated with oral vancomycin d. Rapid weight loss following jejunoileal bypass is associated with development of gallstones Answer: b, d 117. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to gastric bypass for obesity? a. Rapid weight loss following successful gastric bypass for obesity is associated with an increased risk of developing cholelithiasis b. Marginal ulcer develops in 25% of gastric bypass patients c. Vitamin B12 deficiency is a potential complication of gastric bypass due to gastric mucosal atrophy d. Anastamotic leak after gastric bypass is often heralded by bradycardia Answer: a 118. With regard to operative treatment of gastric carcinoma, which of the following statements is/are correct? a. Resectional margins of 2 cm are necessary to prevent recurrence due to intramural metastases b. Prophylactic splenectomy has been shown to improve outcome in similarly staged patients c. Extended lymphadenectomy including nodes along the aorta and esophagus has not been shown to improve survival in North American trials d. Long-term survival is rare if adjacent organs must be resected to achieve local control Answer: c, d 119. Which of the following statement(s) characterizing gastric lymphoma is/are correct? a. More than half of gastrointestinal lymphomas occur in the stomach b. The peak incidence of gastric lymphoma is in the 2nd and 3rd decade c. Endoscopic biopsy is positive diagnostically in 90% of cases d. Gastric perforation occurs in 40% of patients treated with cytolytic agents instead of gastrectomy Answer: a, c 120. A patient with gastric adenocarcinoma undergoes subtotal gastrectomy. Pathological examination reveals that the tumor penetrates to the serosa. Regional lymph nodes are not involved. Distant metastases are not detected. What is the correct tumor stage and 5-year survival rate? a. Stage I: 90% 5-year survival b. Stage II: 45% 5-year survival c. Stage III: 15% 5-year survival d. Stage II: 15% 5-year survival e. Stage III: 2% 5-year survival Answer: b 121. Which of the following conditions is considered to increase the risk of gastric cancer? a. Pernicious anemia b. Prior partial gastrectomy c. Gastric hyperplastic polyps d. Gastric adenomatous polyps Answer: a, b, d 122. A 55-year-old male is evaluated because of symptoms of epigastric pain and anorexia. Physical examination is normal except for guaiac positivity of stool. Upper endoscopic examination reveals a 1.5 cm ulcer along the lesser curvature of the stomach proximal to the incisura angularis. Optimal management consists of which of the following: a. Sucralfate 1 gm q.i.d. for 8 weeks b. Endoscopic biopsy of the ulcer rim c. Endoscopic cautery of the ulcer base d. Endoscopic biopsy of the ulcer base e. Misoprostol 400 mg b.i.d. for 8 weeks Answer: b 123. Which of the following statement(s) regarding gastric leiomyosarcoma is/are correct? a. Leiomyosarcomas occur with peak frequency in the 2nd and 3rd decades b. The primary histological indicator of aggressive behavior is the number of mitoses per microscopic field c. Leiomyosarcomas are usually radiosensitive d. Lymphadectomy is not indicated during resection because metastases are usually hematogenous Answer: b, d ESOPHAGUS-STOMACH-DUODENUM SURGERY Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article

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howtoledlights · 4 years

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Why To Choose a Long-Lasting LED Floodlight.

Efficient lighting brings out the best in every architecture. The visual appearance of a variety of structures can be expressed and transformed particularly by architectural lighting applications. These LED floodlights can really change the visual appearance of buildings, warehouses, stadiums by providing them high-intensity artificial wide-beamed lights.

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scriptflorist · 7 years

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Hi there I'm working on a MS in an AU where the sun stopped rising hundreds of years ago forcing everyone inside. Is it possible that with enough resources. Artificial lights, large grow houses with controlled temps etc. That most things would be able to grow or would it be a case of only certain plants could survive this? Thanks in advance love the blog :).

Hi hi Nonny!

Your character will need to buy grow lights, a specific sort of bulbs that as their name suggests aid with the growth of plants. There are several different types of them, so to give you an idea what’s available I’ll go over them with you and I’ll try not to make it too lengthy. One thing you need to understand though is that as of now, for the most part, artificial lighting cannot compete with the sun. Which is largely due to the fact that in order for a plant to flourish under artificial lighting as it would outside your character will have to meet its needs to a T. That’s what makes it so difficult, after all, that is in a lot of cases an enormous amount of power.

Depending on how it is set up in your story, your characters might want to keep their activities hidden from authorities. They might not because all plants will have to be grown indoors, but perhaps some are trying to grow things unauthorized. In the US, the police use these energy spikes to root out people illegally growing marijuana, which of course would be all but beneficial in this case. So instead they should plan ahead and start using them for a small period of time each month, building up to the proper energy use. That way it’s slow and if they get raided they’ll just have a bunch of petunias or something that won’t cause suspicion in your universe.

Let’s start with the HID (High-Intensity Discharge) lights, they’re currently the most popular, although not the most common grow lights. Their most efficient bulbs are the 600W and 1000W, although the 600W wins by a slight margin as they produce 7% more light and the most electrically efficient bulbs. Now the good thing is: all HID lamps work the same. However: your character needs to match their ballast. Which sounds more complicated as it is, a ballast simply controls the electrical current in a circuit.

There are several types of HID lights:

MH (Metal Halide) lights: These ones bring blue and violet from the light spectrum, similar to the light outside during springtime. Its blue light spectrum might also be more beneficial for vegetative plants with lots of foliage as it encourages compact, leafy growth, strong roots and better resistance against diseases. The latter two mainly noted when used as a supplement light (as by the horticultural industry.) A nice side effect of this light is that it makes plants look very aesthetically pleasing, which is why MH lights are often used at home for plants on display.

CHM (Ceramic Metal Halide) lights: Also referred to as Ceramic Discharge Metal Halide or Ceramic Arc Metal Halide. A relatively new type of HID. Reduced colour shift and variation compared to MH lights, best used for medium-wattage applications.

MH/HPS “Dual Arc” lights: The combination of Metal Halide and High-Pressure-Sodium lights, a single lamp that can provide for the entire lifecycle of a lamp, with both red and blue lights.

HPS (High-Pressure-Sodium) lights: More efficient than MH lights. Can be used as supplement lighting in greenhouses or on their own indoors. The super-efficient 600W bulbs I mentioned at the beginning are HPS lights. However they sometimes have a lack of blue/violet light which causes plants to elongate, and when used as a light source of their own (Instead of a supplement light) their yellowish light often makes monitoring plant health indoors more difficult.

Conversion bulbs: Can work with either MH or HPS ballast. HPS ballast has an igniter which ignites the sodium in the HPS bulb, which MH bulbs lack. Hence why one can’t be simply substituted for the other.

Switchable ballast: Very simple. As long as the wattage is the same it doesn’t matter if your character’s 600 bulb is an MH or HPS. Neat, right?

Grow lights also come in form of LEDs (Light Emitting Diodes.) They usually pack a heat-sink and build in fans, and can be plugged right into your socket as they don’t require an external ballast. They can even be customised to emit only specific wavelengths of light and should be placed 12 inches (30 cm) away from the plant to prevent leaf burn. They’re not as cool as fluorescent lights, but still less hot that could be. Horticultural LEDs are specifically produced to emit the colour spectrum/wavelengths best utilised by plants, with every other your character will have to be carefully looking since they come in so many different types.

And almost at last the most common grow lights: Fluorescent lights. They usually have somewhat more blue wavelength light, which makes it recommendable to either pick a mix of cool and warm fluorescent lights or full spectrum. Also, they are rather cool, which allows them to placed closer to the plants than many others.

Tube-style fluorescent lights: Not as intense as HID lights, which makes them useful for plants with lower light needs. Good for growing vegetables and herbs indoors, or to get a jump start on spring planting. In need of a ballast, also high-output fluorescent lights are ideal for vertically limited areas thanks to their slim fixture.

CFLs (Compact Fluorescent Lights): As their name states, a much smaller, compact version of fluorescent lights. They weren’t initially intended to be grow lights, however, there are now CFLs being produced specifically to be used as grow lights. CFLs don’t need a ballast and fit into standard light sockets.

Incandescent lights get quite hot, so don’t let your character place them too close to their plants. Remember: Leaf burns. They give off more red light, which makes them a good supplement for fluorescent lights, a mix of one-third incandescent and two thirds fluorescent lights should do the trick.

Even halogen lights can provide a full spectrum for your characters plants, however, they pack a lot of heat and aren’t really energy efficient.

At last of course, there’s specifically the horticultural grow lights, specifically packaged and designed for a majority of plants needs. With those, your character gets the full spectrum of wavelengths specialised for blooming. Whether or not these or fluorescent lights are better is a matter of opinion for most gardeners. A tip on the side: bulbs labelled as “plant bulbs” usually are only to make the plants look better and don’t have further effect on them.

And that would be all of them! Phew. Usually, these grow lights are used to supply single arrangements or plants and necessarily big plantations so this would be insanely well researched and developed in your character’s world. When mounting the lamps, your character should be mindful of their distance to the plants. Most bulbs will heat up and burn the leaves if they don’t take care, so depending on which lights they choose they will have to hang them at different heights. They might even need lamps with several adjustable heads.

It’s not only about the bulb’s type though, but also about its colour. You probably noticed I sometimes mentioned blue and red light, which both is important for a plants growth. Green not so much, but we’ll get to that. Generally plants grown under only red light show leaf deformities, even though they seem to develop normally in every other way. Adding a small amount of blue light somehow negates the effect and allows the plants to grow normally. The blue wavelengths generally further foliage growth, whereas red wavelengths further fruits and flowers. Green light, if added, should be at a no higher rate than 24%, which can further the growth process in some plants. Its colour also makes it easier to see whether or a not a plant is healthy. Overall a combination of those three colours seems to be working best, however, if your character can’t obtain the light in these individual colours, white light should suffice as it covers the whole spectrum.

Light in all cases is the key element for a plant’s proper growth, regardless of anything else your character will be doing, if the lights go out, especially for extended periods of time, they’re fucked. But also the lights aren’t supposed to be on all day either. A long plant day “only” lasts 16+ hours, with eight hours downtime (seedling/planting phase.) How much light your characters plants exactly need so to speak depends on their phase or growth. The vegetative phase, for example, requires 18 hours of light and 6 hours off and during the flowering stage they need an equal amount of 12 hours of light and darkness.

Furthermore, there is something called short-day, long-day and day-neutral plants which also indicates their need in lighting. Short-day plants usually require no more than 12 hours or light, so long-day, of course, are on the 16+ spectrum. Day-neutral plants obviously don’t really care about all that. An indicator for short-day plants usually are bracts.

To wrap this all up, let’s talk a little more about light and how it’s measured when it comes to plants. You are probably familiar with lumens and lux, which are the most common forms of measurement. When it comes to plants however we’re talking PAR (Photosynthetically Active Radiation.) See lux and lumens are very neat and handy for us humans, but PAR measures the spectral levels of light used photosynthetically. (Which admittedly is similar, but just not quite the same.) It does designate a specific spectral range of solar radiation, which relates directly to the spectral range of the photosynthetic organisms, but given that your character’s world once had a sun, it might very well be still in use by their scientists.

Beyond light needs, you might also want to consider if the lack of sun has changed the average temperatures. Plants will need to be kept in proper temperature and humidity ranges. If your characters use heaters that work on some sort of combustion (such as gas) then inefficient heaters can put off ethylene gas which will cause senescence (basically premature ageing for plants, withering, early ripening and rotting of fruits, etc). You might take care of some of the humidity and growth requirements by considering this ask about aqua-, aero- and hydroponics.

Of course, your characters plants do have other needs too, water (and the draining of it), soil, the right pots, fertilising and a few other things have to be considered when planting. Make sure they have the individual plant’s needs coveredTechnically there is nothing your characters shouldn’t be able to grow, though it might very well be they will have greater success with certain plants than others.

You should also check in with @scriptastronomer about your burnt out sun (or whatever the hell happened to it, science is hard.) Also, possible @scriptshrink about season affective disorders and @scriptmedic because everyone will be lacking vitamin D.

I hope this was helpful!

- Mod Jana

Disclaimer

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grow_light#cite_note-Zachos2014-13

http://www.gardenguides.com/115469-grow-plants-artificial-lights.html

http://earthsky.org/human-world/artificial-light-plant-growth

https://www.todayshomeowner.com/how-to-grow-houseplants-in-artificial-light/

#plant care #writing advice #indoor plants #grow lights #growing indoors #lighting #mod jana #ask answered #long post #Anonymous

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lokis-mischievous-writer · 4 years

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Research Paper: Lighting Green Walls – finding the optimum CCT and SPD of white LED light sources.

Author: Dr. Amardeep M. Dugar, Lighting Research & Design

Introduction

The concept of using green walls in built environments is a multi-disciplinary application of biophilic design, where living plant systems are integrated with non-living building systems; it dates back to the Hanging Gardens of Babylon (1–5). A ‘green wall’ is a descriptive term used to refer all forms of vegetated wall surfaces, which can be further subdivided into two major categories: green facades and living walls (5,6). Green façade systems are composed of climbing plants or cascading groundcovers trained to cover specially designed supporting structures (7). Living walls are composed of pre-vegetated panels, vertical modules or planted blankets fixed vertically to a structural wall or frame; there are various forms of living walls, with the main differences occurring between designs for interior and exterior built environments (7). This small-scale qualitative pilot study focuses on the optimum illumination of green living walls within interior environments using white LED light sources.

The generic objective for most green wall projects has been the aesthetic and ornamental value relating to qualitative improvement of human experience as opposed to quantitative evaluation of materials and system performance (3,8,9). Measurable improvements to the human condition in terms of health, well-being and productivity have been reported by the use of green elements such as green walls in interior environments (10–14). Robust green walls however require appropriately specified: plants for geographic location and hardiness zone; growing medium to sustain the chosen plants; irrigation levels to meet watering and nutritional needs of plants; microclimatic conditions such as humidity, light and temperature (5).

Of the many resources required for growing and maintaining robust green walls within interior environments, light is one of the most important – apart from photosynthesis, it is required for several physiological processes in overall plant development such as photomorphogenesis and reproductive stage development (15,16). Additionally, insufficient lighting can cause stoppage of water intake by the green walls resulting in excess soil-water build-up, which may lead to toxic anaerobic environments breeding soil-borne pathogens, moulds, bugs, etc. as well as root rot (17). While natural sunlight has the perfect balance of fluence and wavelengths necessary for the growth of green walls, greater control over their growth and maintenance is possible by the appropriate use of artificial light (15,18).

The amount and ratio of different wavelengths from a light source in terms of correlated colour temperature (CCT) and spectral power distribution (SPD) determine growth and maintenance patterns of green walls. Agronomically, light-emitting diode (LED) technologies have the potential to cover fluence and wavelength requirements of green walls, while allowing specific wavelengths to be enriched, thus supplying the light quantity and quality essential for different phases of plant growth (18–20). The idea that plant growth under natural sunlight could be mimicked using blue and red LEDs has generally led to blue-red combinations being used for growing green wall systems: red (650-665nm) wavelengths perfectly fit with the absorption peak of chlorophylls and phytochromes; supplemented blue (460-475nm) wavelengths allow higher photosynthetic activity by providing better excitation of different types of photoreceptors (18,19,21,22). However, research confirms that specific blue-red spectrum LEDs used for functionalistic food production cannot be applied for the illumination of green walls: the spectrum enables fast growth for market consumption usually making plants appear unnatural; whereas illumination of green walls in an interior environment should help them grow at an appropriate speed, which reduces maintenance costs, and provides them with a natural appearance (23). Additionally, green walls will appear purplish grey under blue-red spectrum, which makes visual assessment of plant health difficult thereby negating their aesthetic and ornamental value (23,24).

This study argues that white LEDs normally used for architectural lighting applications offering all the main bands of wavelengths in the photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) spectrum (390-700nm) enable plant-growth at an appropriate biological speed, while rendering a natural visual appearance to green walls within interior environments (25). Photosynthetic photon flux (PPF) derived from the total amount of PAR has the most effect on plant growth as more PPF means more photons and more power, and is a parallel to lumens. Photosynthetic photon flux density (PPFD) determines the number of incident photons and is a parallel to illuminance. While keeping the illuminance and its consequent PPFD constant, the study aims to arrive at the optimum CCT and SPD for biologically- and visually-effective illumination of green walls. Biological effectiveness is assessed in terms of growth at an appropriate speed that reduces maintenance costs. Visual effectiveness is assessed in terms of natural appearance that is visually appealing to people.

Materials and Methods

Three identical green walls with six different plant species as listed in Table 1 were illuminated with three different CCTs/SPDs of white LED light sources as provided in Figure 1. The walls were illuminated for a period of 5 months from September 2019 to January 2020. Plant health in terms of leaf and stem growth patterns was monitored and documented at the end of the 5-month period. A total of 106 subjects in smaller groups of seven or eight were presented with this experimental set-up and expected to complete a questionnaire. The independent variable for this experimental setup is the SPD and CCT of the light sources. The starting point was a practical one having an SPD most commonly used in offices: 4000K. The second SPD had a warmer CCT sometimes used in offices but also hotel foyers and shopping malls: 3000K. The third SPD is less often used in these application areas, nevertheless fitting with the hypotheses that plants grow best and appear most natural under daylight: 5600K. The dependent variables are the plant-growth patterns and people’s responses towards the appearance of these plants.

Table 1: Six different species of plants used in the green walls

Figure 1: The three different CCTs and SPDs of LED light sources used in the experiment

The Apto family of track-mounted spotlights from LumenPulse AlphaLED as depicted in Figure 2 were specified considering the flexibility and installation requirements of the experiment. These luminaires are equipped with the Xicato Artist Series 5600K 5000lm daylight module running at 350mA, 4000K 1300lm and 3000K 1300lm modules both running at 700mA. Each luminaire consists of 60° wide-beam specular reflectors to ensure an even and smooth light distribution across the entirety of the green wall bays at an average efficacy level of 92lm/W. Two luminaires of each CCT/SPD were assigned for each of the three living walls leading to a total of eighteen luminaires.

The luminaires offer on-board dimming through DALI Pro. Mounted on three-circuit track, each luminaire was connected to a separate circuit, allowing for individual CCT/SPD grouping per green wall and seamless switching control during active demonstrations. Control was designed such that, during the visual assessments by test subjects, scenes could be recalled from a touch panel with a one-second fade-time. The scenes had all three walls being lit by each CCT/SPD, with an “All Off” scene between each for adaptation purposes. For all other times when visual assessments were not taking place, each wall was lit with a different CCT/SPD. A clock timer was used to switch on and off the lighting each day for a period of 12 hours between 7:00AM to 7:00PM.

Figure 2: Apto track-mounted spotlight from LumenPulse AlphaLED with 60° beam angle

The SPDs were analysed according to the ANSI/IES TM-30-18 and the results are listed in Table 2, in terms of the measured CCT of the sources, their colour fidelity and colour gamut. All of the sources have very good colour properties. The number of photons, in the band 400nm to 700nm, per 1000 light source lumens was also calculated. By convention the number of photons is expressed in mols, which is the total number of photons divided by Avogadro’s number. In the sources with the lower colour temperature have higher relative photon output, this was expected as lower colour temperature means more light at the longer wavelength end of the spectrum and thus lower average photon energy. The lower photon energy means there are more photons for a given radiated power.

Table 2: Light source properties

The green walls were installed within a confined room (3.5m by 3.2m) with no windows or external source of light at the University College London (UCL) HereEast Campus Building in London as depicted in Figure 3. The room used had been designed as a storage area with no ventilation or thermal control. Each wall was lit with a different colour of light source and for purpose of simplicity the walls are referred to as Walls 3000K, 4000K and 5600K.

Figure 3: Schematic layout of the three green walls arrangement in a confined room at UCL Here East

To allow the plants to grow, in a way expected in an interior, each of the walls was lit using a set of two track-mounted lights. The lights were mounted at a height of 2.5m and 1m away from the face of the wall as shown in Figure 4. The lights were aimed to create an illuminance of approximately 1200 lux on the vertical at the top of the wall and about 500 lux at the bottom of the wall. In this part of the experiment it was important that each wall only received light from a single set of light sources. To reduce the amount of inter-reflected light in the test room the floor was covered with dark carpet tiles. The worst problem with spill light was at the bottom of the walls; switching of the lights for a given wall and measuring the illuminance of the wall due to spill light from the other two tested this. After the mitigation, measures had been put in place the illuminance at the base of the wall due to inter-reflected light was 20 lux.

During this part of the experiment, the luminaires were run at full power for 12 hours per day and the room was in darkness for the other 12 hours. An additional display set up was used for the walls when the subjects were invited to appraise the walls. In this set up one set of two luminaires of each colour was aimed at each wall. During appraisals the colour of the light on each of the walls was the same and was achieved using the DALI controller to turn on the next scene.

Figure 4: Luminaire arrangement in the ceiling for lighting the three green walls

The intention of this experiment was to obtain feedback from subjects with appropriate educational and professional backgrounds in designing built environments so as to comprehensively review and comment on the naturalness and visual appeal of the green wall. Therefore it was decided to involve subjects with a design background such as architects, landscape architects, lighting professionals and students in the experiment. A selective sampling method was used where specific invitations were prepared and sent to a selected number of architects, lighting professionals and students. Additionally, by ensuring that all the 106 subjects who agreed to participate in the experiment given an identical treatment, the influence of any form of individual characteristics was eliminated. The experiments were conducted over a period of six specific days from 03 December 2019 to 29 January 2020 based on the availability of the subjects.

Figure 5: Subjects’ appraisals of green walls using a survey questionnaire

The subjects were asked to respond to each wall and lighting condition by completing a questionnaire as shown in Figure 5. A trial experiment of showing the walls to some subjects who did not take part in the main study and asking their opinions about the walls in a semi-structured interview further developed the questionnaire. The key issues found were naturalness and the appealing nature of the walls in the environment. There were a number of other terms that were also raised by the trial pool of subjects. Thus the questionnaire started with two questions set as bipolar semantics on a 5-point scale asking about naturalness and visual appeal of the walls. The other issues were addressed by the use of ten pairs of opposed adjectives. The adjective pairs used in the experiment are listed in Table 3. To reduce the possibility of bias the 20 words were arranged in a random block and subjects were asked to ring all of the adjectives that applied.

On arrival at the test site subjects were greeted with refreshments and brief introduction to the use of green walls. During the introduction the presenters spoke only in general terms and were careful not to give any details of the experiment to the subjects. The subjects visited the test room in groups of varying size from one person on their own to nine people at the same time. Before the subjects entered the test room the lighting on all walls was set to the first colour temperature for the test. When all of the subjects had appraised all three walls, the lighting was dimmed and turned off for about 15 seconds, after which lighting with the next colour temperature was dimmed up. The appraisal of the walls was carried out again and the lighting changed again and then the final appraisal was carried out. The order in which the light sources were used was randomised.

Table 3: Pairs of opposed adjectives

Results and Analysis

The results are broadly classified under biological effectiveness in terms of plant health, and visual effectiveness in terms of peoples’ responses towards the lighting of the green walls. Out of the 106 participants surveyed for this experiment, 39 are practicing architecture professionals, 51 are practicing lighting professionals, and 16 are students. Age and gender of the subjects were not recorded, as these were not considered as criteria for assessment.

Table 4: Average leaf health of the six plant species after five months of experimentation

Biological effectiveness was assessed both in terms of leaf and stem health. Leaf health was assessed based on a comparative qualitative rating scale of 0 to 4: 0 correlated to a plant with completely dry leaves; 4 correlated to a plant with green leaves. Each of the plant species was assessed individually based on this rating scale and then the rating was averaged for each species mounted on each wall. The average leaf health of all the six plant species for each of the three walls after five months of experimentation is listed in Table 4. Species B, D and F reported the greenest leaves, while species C reported the driest leaves across all the three walls. Almost all the plants of species C had withered. On an average, Wall 5600K reported the greenest leaves across all species.

Table 5: Comparative growth patterns of the green walls before and after the five-month experimentation period

Table 6: Average stem health of the three walls after five months of experimentation

Stem health was also assessed based on a comparative rating scale of 1 to 3: 1 correlated to the plant wall with the longest and unhealthiest stems; 3 correlated to the plant wall with the shortest and healthiest stems. Instead of measuring each individual plants, it was decided to measure the overall plants overhangs for each wall from four different heights i.e. 350mm, 700mm, 1050mm and 1400mm from the base of the wall. These three lengths were then averaged and the wall the shortest overhang was assigned 3, while the wall with the longest overhang was assigned 1. Wall 5600K reported the shortest and strongest stems, while Wall 3000K reported the longest and weakest stems. The comparative growth patterns of the green walls before and after the five-month period of experimentation are depicted in Table 5. The average stems health of the green walls before and after the five-month experimentation period is depicted in Table 6.

Visual effectiveness was primarily assessed based on the naturalness and appealing nature of the green walls. Figure 6 and Figure 7 represent the distribution patterns of the participants’ responses for naturalness and visual appeal respectively on a scale of 1 to 5. Participants demonstrated an inclination towards 4000K for both naturalness and visual appeal, as the green wall illuminated with 4000K received the highest scores as shown in Table 7. A lexical analysis of the adjectives used to describe the lighting of the green walls are listed in Table 8, which again demonstrates an inclination towards 4000K for a healthy and natural appearance of the plant walls.

Figure 6: Naturalness distribution of participants’ responses for the three walls

Figure 7: Visual Appeal distribution of participants’ responses for the three walls

Table 7: Average score on naturalness and visual appeal for the three walls

Table 8: Lexical analysis of the adjective use counts for the three walls

Discussion

Growth and health of green walls in controlled artificial environments to a large extent is dependent on the types of plant species used in the green wall design. Out of the six plant species monitored under identical experimental conditions, three (B, D, F) demonstrated good growth, two (A, E) demonstrated average growth, while one (C) demonstrated bad growth. Popular belief that high illuminance levels e.g. 5,000-10,000lux ensure growth and health of green walls can be questioned as reasonably well plant growth patterns were observed in this study under average illuminance levels of 1100lux. Warmer CCT and red spectrum cause unhealthy stem elongation, which is more prominent in the green wall illuminated with 3000K. In general for green walls, 5600K is most suitable for controlled growth and health, while 4000K is most preferred by people for naturalness and visual appeal. Therefore the main discussion point drawn from this pilot study involves a blend of 4000K and 5600K to achieve a biologically – and visually – effective illumination of green walls. Blending could imply various options ranging from the development of a dedicated single output LED module, time based SPD changes via a tunable white module or a blended lighting design using two different light sources, 4000K and 5600K.

Next Steps

The obvious next steps for this study are to firstly, experiment with just such a blended solution as is discussed above, and possibly a timed approach with tunable white solutions. With controls and tunable light sources playing a major role in all future solutions, it might be worthwhile to test such tunable solutions to achieve biologically- and visually-effective illumination of green walls. And secondly, to experiment on a larger scale with a more focussed species of plant types that are more robust for interior green wall applications. Additionally, a larger group of survey participants from the general public need to be involved so as to obtain feedback representing a broader cross-section of the general public.

Research Paper by Dr. Amardeep M. Dugar, Lighting Research & Design

Acknowledgements

The following authors contributed to this paper:

Morris Costello, Lumenpulse AlphaLED David Gilbey, NDY Light Rick McKeever, WonderWall Peter Raynham, UCL Roger Sexton, Xicato

References

Kellert SR, Heerwagen J, Mador M, editors. Biophilic Design: The Theory, Science and Practice of Bringing Buildings to Life. Hoboken, NJ, USA: John Wiley & Sons; 2008. 432 p.

Kellert SR. Nature by Design: The Practice of Biophilic Design. New Haven, USA: Yale University Press; 2018. 224 p.

Culver AL, Mumford J, Anderson M, Fediw K, Lewis M. Living Walls: Communicating the aesthetic, environmental, productivity and health benefits of plants in the built environment. [Internet]. 2014. Available from: GreenPlantsforGreenBuildings.org

Rodrigues R. Biophilic Design: The (New) Hanging Gardens of Babylon. Love Happens. 2019;4.

Sharp R, Sable J, Bertram F, Mohan E, Peck S. Introduction to Green Walls: Technology, Benefits & Design [Internet]. 2008. Available from: www.greenroofs.org

Tamási A, Dobszay G. Requirements for Designing Living Wall Systems – Analysing System Studies on Hungarian Projects. Period Polytech Archit. 2015;46(2):78–87.

Sharma P. Vertical Gardens – An Innovative Element of Green Building Technology. In: International Conference (GYANODAY 2015). Greater Noida, INDIA; 2015. p. 42–8.

Hosey L. The Shape of Green: Aesthetics, Ecology, and Design. 3rd ed. Washington, DC, USA: Island Press; 2012.

Grinde B, Patil GG. Biophilia: Does visual contact with nature impact on health and well-being? Int J Environ Res Public Health. 2009;6(9):2332–2343.

Largo-Wight E, Chen WW, Dodd V, Weiler R. Healthy Workplaces: The Effects of Nature Contact at Work on Employee Stress and Health. Public Health Rep. 2011;126(1_suppl):124–30.

Adamson K, Thatcher A. Do Indoor Plants Improve Performance Outcomes?: Using the Attention Restoration Theory. In: Bagnara S, R T, S A, T A, Y F, editors. Advances in Intelligent Systems and Computing. Florence, ITALY: Springer, Cham; 2019. p. 591–604.

Raanaas RK, Horgen KE, Rich D, Sjøstrøma G, Patil GG. Benefits of indoor plants on attention capacity in an office setting. J Environ Psychol [Internet]. 2011;21(1):99–105. Available from: https://ift.tt/2MjygFe

Bakker I, Voordt TJM Van der. The influence of plants on productivity: a critical assessment of research findings and test methods. Facilities. 2010;28(9/10):416–39.

Neuwenhuis M, Knight C, Postmes T, Haslam SA. The relative benefits of green versus lean office space: three field experiments. J Exp Psychol Appl. 2014;20(3):199–214.

Canham AE. Artificial Lighting for Plant Growth. Light Res Technol. 1954;19(8):235–61.

Sekhar S, Darshan Panda, Kumar J, Mohanty N, Biswal M, Baig MJ, et al. Comparative transcriptome profiling of low light tolerant and sensitive rice varieties induced by low light stress at active tillering stage. Nature. 2019;

Westerduin E. The Ultimate Guide to Living Green Wall Lighting [Internet]. Available from: www.suiteplants.com

Darko E, Heydarizadeh P, Schoefs B, Mohammad R. Sabzalian. Photosynthesis under artificial light: the shift in primary and secondary metabolism. Philos Trans R Soc B. 2014;369(1640).

Ouzounis T, Rosenqvist E, Ottosen C-O. Spectral Effects of Artificial Light on Plant Physiology and Secondary Metabolism: A Review. HortScience. 2015;50(8):1128–1135.

Promratrak L. The effect of using LED lighting in the growth of crops hydroponics. Int J Smart Grid Clean Energy. 2017;6(2):133–40.

Schoefs B. Chlorophyll and carotenoid analysis in food products. Properties of the pigments and methods of analysis. Trends Food Sci Technol. 2002;13(11):361–71.

Sabzalian M, Heydarizadeh P, Zahedi M, Boroomand A, Agharokh M, Sahba M, et al. High performance of vegetables, flowers, and medicinal plants in a red-blue LED incubator for indoor plant production. Agron Sustain Dev. 2014;34(4):879–86.

Zielinska-Dabkowska KM, Hartmann J, Sigillo C. LED Light Sources and Their Complex Set-Up for Visually and Biologically Effective Illumination for Ornamental Indoor Plants. Sustainability. 2019;11(2642).

Kim H-H, Wheeler RM, Sager JC, Yorio NC, Goins GD. Light-Emitting Diodes as an Illumination Source for Plants: A Review of Research at Kennedy Space Center. Habitation. 2005;10:71–78.

Dugar AM, Dileep M, Burhani H. White LED Light Sources – Merging Architectural and Horticultural Lighting Applications within Interior Environments. Int J Hortic Crop Sci Res. 2019;9(2):83–93.

#ILLUMNI: lighting Design #light art and lighting jobs from around the world

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biling-solar · 3 years

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How to charge Biling Solar Ground Spotlight in the absence of sunlight?

In the past, it was impossible to store solar energy for night use, and it was also unimaginable by our ancestors. Fortunately for us, this idea is not only true, but has become the norm in human life around the world. biling solar lights have completely changed the lighting technology, literally freed us from the darkness, and changed people's lifestyles drastically!

biling solar lights are a simple solution for most homeowners. It’s easy to pop them in a place with plenty of sun and wait until the battery is fully charged. However, depending on your geographical location, the season, or the weather, sunlight levels may vary. In this case, you may need to be a bit resourceful when charging your Biling lights.

In this article, we will tell you how to charge solar ground spotlights without sunlight so that you can make the most of them. There are three methods you can try: use electricity, artificial light or indirect sunlight.

How do Biling solar ground spotlights work?

Before we answer the above questions, we must first understand the working principle of solar lights, which is very important. Essentially, solar lights consist of photovoltaic cells, batteries and lights fixed together. The process of collecting energy, converting it and then releasing it involves multiple steps for use in gardens, emergencies or roads.

Step 1: Light enters the photovoltaic cell and energy is collected in by the wiring of the mini solar panel. This electricity is then fed to the solar light’s battery.

Step 2: The battery stores this energy as chemical energy during the daytime. The battery will then begin to provide it to the light when the battery is no longer being directly charged by the Sun.

The Basics of Solar Cells

📷

1. ELECTRICITY

2. ARTIFICIAL LIGHT

The Importance of Lumens

Incandescent bulbs Fluorescent bulbs LED bulbs

Lumens Watts Watts Watts

250 25 4-9 3

450 40 9-13 4-5

800 60 13-15 6-8

1,100 75 18-25 9-13

1,600 100 23-30 16-20

2,000 125 28-40 20-25

2,600 150 30-55 25-28

LED’s are amazingly energy efficient close to 1/10 the watt usage of Incandescent

3. Indirect Sunlight

Charging your solar ground spotlights in Cloudy Weather

You should also angle your solar ground spotlights to face the sun directly as this will maximize your charging capabilities.

3 Ways to Make Sure you are Getting as Much Charge as Possible

1. Angle your lights

2. Keep your biling solar ground lights at an Ambient Temperature

3. Keep your Solar Panels Clean

Can you charge a solar light with a flashlight?

Yes, you can – artificial light (eg flashlight) is capable of charging your solar ground spotlights. The speed that the flashlight will charge the solar light depends on the brightness.

So you don’t need sunlight for solar ground spotlights, but it definitely helps.

According to Philips (you know the lightbulb manufacturers):

Typical room illumination is 300-500 lumens, whereas outdoor light varies from 1500 lumens on a cloudy day to 100,000 lumens on a sunny day.

There you go! You see, there are many alternatives to charging your solar lights without direct sunlight. You can charge them indoors or outdoors.

We hope these simple hacks can solve your issue of charging biling solar spotlights. You can even apply these for other solar equipment and devices that have solar panels.

https://www.biling1.com/

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leroyv9453094481-blog · 6 years

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When searching for a wall mounted photo voltaic motion sensor gentle there are few issues you need to pay more consideration to - the ease of installation, brightness, movement sensor and its customisability and, in fact, the brightness. The light turns on automatically at night and has two brightness settings. CFL lamps must be turned as much as full brightness on begin up and left at full energy for a few minutes earlier than it is dimmed or the life expectancy of the lamp shall be lowered. Biodiesel is great as a result of it's more efficient and produces less pollution that normal oil, which will cut back your carbon footprint. Each class of lights is described in additional detail in an effort to verify which one is an appropriate replacement to your existing bulb. Name the police, call the paramedics, endure the stress and trauma of wondering if the intruder or considered one of their pals will at some point come again for revenge? Remember that there is no such thing as a want to purchase separate fixture for all of the several types of lighting. If a fixture is giving off a lot brightness then it takes away from the elegance of the piece and attracts attention away from the opposite accessories at the same time. The following time you consider dwelling remodeling, take into consideration introducing photo voltaic vitality panels to your property. Specifically, a photo voltaic vitality system can be expensive (but remember, after even a relatively short time of use, it can pay for itself). Due to these issues more and more individuals are relying on photo voltaic energy. This type of lighting can produce near white light which allows for colours to be better displayed and more correct. Supplied with three LED gentle bulbs. How Do LED Develop Lights Work? With their unique design, prime quality and extremely aggressive pricing you can’t go fallacious with these LED photo voltaic avenue lig With such a formidable choice offered when it comes to outside furnishings, it is best to simply be able to get the perfect selection for you. But all of them have one factor on their thoughts which is to have a good time the season via a tasteful decoration of the house and surroundings. Many individuals find the thought of creating their home extra inexperienced to be a daunting one. Landscaping your property isn’t limited to the front yard alone, remember that your yard can use some renovating as effectively. They're normally present in easy kinds that can both contribute to the decor of the garden or be effectively hidden. Fixture can be found in three customary lengths and could be interconnected for lengths up to 8 ft. The options are only as limited as your imagination. In this age, shopping has been influenced less demanding for the reason that better a part of the organizations to have been connected in the web for the accommodation of the consum

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infinite-tigers · 6 years

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Constructed Between LED and HID

Light emitting diode or LED lights make use of power more efficiently compared to other technologies such as HID bulbs (high intensity discharge). They will cost them very less even in the event that you run for more than time.

A full range of LED panel is a much much better option in the event of developing cannabis as their light resembles with a price equal to the fraction cost of glowing HID lamps to natural sun.

While buying 1000 Watt LED grow light, we need to take thought of the area we would like to cover and intensity of lighting we need for our objective. To go in detail there are aspects that needs to be taken care of if you purchase a plant light. All of them are mentioned below:

Two lights mentioned below have exactly the same wattage whereas another two have various ranges. This is done to give you control over range.

At the time of vegetative era of the plant plants do not need much light as much they require during flowerings. Your electricity cost is going to be stored if you let your fixture to automatically switch off the LEDs.

SPECTRUM: whilst analyzing right spectrum for our LED light, We need to contemplate 2 factors. A. The Color of Light B. The customization Alternatives in Light

A. The Colour of Light Colored LEDs vs. White LEDs Fixtures with colored LEDs additionally have a white LEDs blended inside them. But just white coloured LEDs are used in Next Light Mega.

Here are two sides of lights that are colored that are white:

A.1) Favour of white lighting

Proponents of light that is grow that is white state that their spectrum is most natural as it's comparable to sunlight. Its light is similar to a HPS bulb when run using a metal bulb. Or it can be referred by us together with an additional light of color.

HPS has proved out to be the very best for working with plants. Also we are aware that plants love sun, therefore LED is the best choice to go for this. Also it functions like HPS and MH lights.

Additionally there is another benefit of white light i.e. the plants appear natural in white light, therefore it gets easier to inspect and detect any kind of discolorations inside them which is difficult in case of pink lights.

A.2) Against Usage of white lighting

Opponents of the light has pointed out that it is made of green and yellow light that's a little used from the plants and normally gets wasted. It is ok in the event of sun as it is free of price and is an inexhaustible supply of energy. By squandering light, however, in the event of LEDs you are only footing your invoice.

B. The Customization Options in Light There are separate modes each for bloom and veg in few lighting. By way of instance, Cirrus T allows you to maintain a control.

The fundamental advantage is- lower power price. Plants need more of the light in flowering and not during vegging. Even during cloning too, there's absolutely no need of sufficient lights. So you are able to dial the amount of light in accordance with the use back so as to prevent wastage of power.

However, there is also flip side of it. Plants may get shocked and may suffer from stalling development for almost two weeks if you alter the colour of lights throughout growth. The switching modes in LEDs, will not create the issue of stalled expansion for long but you should be ready for a few days to confront it.

For that time, you have to pay your electricity bills for running lights and also for getting nutrients, needed to feed crops. Fixtures with a single mode are simple to operate. Just forget it and you need to turn that.

Light output 1000W LEDs usually have an output like 900W within an HPS light device. 4 star ratings are given with intensity of 1000W HPS tech bulbs to 5 star ratings for fixtures and fittings of endurance 900HPS. As it provides light to 1200W Cirrus T5000 is the device than remainder of the three.

Canopy penetration All the producers claim their LEDs penetrate below canopy as in case of HPS lighting. But in reality, the situation is very rare. 5 stars are given who permeate equal to 4 and HPS to individuals who penetrate a bit less than HPS.

Area Of Coverage For choosing a glow lighting, specs ought to be ignored. Lumens are utilized for measuring the brightness of eyes. Attention should be paid to specs like wattage and PAR along with the guidelines put by the producer on the policy.

PAR (photosynthetically active radiation) is emitted from the colors in addition to the light's intensity. Your cannabis can be thriven by lights using a broad spectrum . PAR can quantify lights of 400-700nm from the spectrum. It ends finally infrared and up as red and emerges to blue. King plus 1000 W grow light It consists of 10W LED bulbs with dual chips. These are more economical and more efficient as compared to 3W LEDs or classic 5W. They are engineered to maintain a balance between lumen output/PAR and coverage area.

Key Features It has a longer life span. It consumes only 185W of electricity saves your energy consumptions.

It merely consumes 0.185KWh every hour and therefore saves money over MH/HPS lamps.

It works with a voltage of 85V-265V. Simply plug play with. It has a spectrum with yellow, white, blue, red, UV and IR that are similar to the colours of sun.

Get it now on Amazon It's termed ideal for most indoor flowers, vegetables and plants. It has an excellent cooling system. It includes little holes on its LED board through enthusiasts.

There is dissipation of heat. Every LED keeps on working. The company has professionals design to develop and research on the products and has its own factory.

Customer services are provided by the company and can be available 24X7. It is available at its price on Amazon.

Light won't be as great for 50,000 hours as promised. 2. Bestva 1000W double chip The 10W Dual Processor LEDs are much efficient and brighter than 3W LEDs and the conventional 5W. It has the maximum lumen output/ PAR on each LED.

Essential Features 1000W spectrum grow lights have proven out to be very beneficial to indoor flowers, plants and vegetables.

It looks like a sunshine. Its strong fan cooling process is free and very cool as compared to other lights of this variety.

Holes onto its aluminum panel and its glass makeover make the heat convection run at approximately 50-60 degree F which is lower than comparable lights.

Get it now on Amazon It will consume 185W when we compare 600W HPS lights and it. Its coverage area is twice than every other reflector light. It's considered perfect for an area of 5.1'X4.7'. Its perfect height of placing is 24".

The manufacturer provides you warranty of three years alongside a return policy of 30 days if unsatisfied with the item.

PROS Dual chip technologies Complete spectrum Better coverage area Attractive returns and replacement policies CONS For indoor use only. Not Waterproof Extremely powerful. If viewed 6, could be harmful. 3. It has powerful lights of 1000W. Each LED comprises 2 parts of 5W making it brighter 3W and than 5W LEDs and dual.

Since it just consumes 110W-120W power it's an excellent energy saver. The brightness is very high and has a lengthy Lifespan.

The UV technologies sterilizes the growth of bacteria which may hinder its ability to produce flowers that are healthy and the plant's development.

Its IR function improves cell division and promotes development. This will raise the yield to some extent.

Its professional spectrum is developed after eight decades of research of an experienced manufacturer.

Its mild looks natural sunlight that's beneficial for both flowering as well as non flowering plants.

Two fans for heating are put in its every kit for protection from overheat. In working for hours, this keeps the lights.

Its LEDs are efficient in growing season of the plants. It has greatly replaced MH/HPS/HID lights in case of energy saving.

It really absorbs a power of merely 185W which automatically conserves energy to a great extent.

Lighting 630nm-660nm's spectrum lighting blue lights 430nm-470nm white lights 6500K-3500K.

Get it today on Amazon These bring proper wavelengths that are necessary for the plants at blooming in addition to stage.

It is broadly helpful in flower farming, tissue culture, spraying, potted plants, plantation, pipeline farming, water breeding gardens, greenhouses and more.

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dont-blame-tubbs-blog · 6 years

Text

Led lights for weed!

Light emitting diode or LED lights take advantage of power more effectively compared to other technology such as HID bulbs (high intensity discharge). They'll cost them quite less in the event that you run for more than time.

A range of LED panel is a option in the event of cannabis because their light looks with a price equivalent to the fraction price of HID lamps that are luminous.

While purchasing 1000 Watt LED grow light, we will need to take thought of the place we would like to cover and intensity of lighting we need for our objective. To really go in detail there are. All of them are mentioned below:

Two lights have a wattage whereas another two have various ranges. This can be done to give you control over range.

In the time of era of the plant plants do not need much light just as much that they require throughout flowerings. Your power cost is going to be stored if you allow your fixture to automatically switch off the LEDs.

SPECTRUM: whilst assessing appropriate spectrum for our LED light, we have to contemplate 2 factors. A. The Colour of Light B. The Colour of Light Colored LEDs vs. White LEDs

Fixtures with LEDs have a few LEDs. But colored LEDs are employed in adjoining Light Mega.

Here are just two sides of lights that are coloured that are white:

Proponents of whitened mild that is grow state their spectrum is natural since it's comparable to sun. When run using a metal bulb its light is somewhat like a HPS bulb. Or it can be referred by us with an light of colour like a HPS spectrum.

HPS has proved out to be the very best for working with plants. We are aware that sun is loved by plants, so LED is your best option. It functions like HPS and MH lighting.

Additionally there's another benefit of white lighting i.e. the plants appear natural from white light, therefore it gets easier to inspect and detect any kind of discolorations inside them that is difficult in the event of pink lights.

A.2) Against Usage of white lighting

Opponents of the light has pointed out it is made from green and yellow light that's a little used from the plants and normally has wasted. It's ok in the event of sunlight as it doesn't have any cost and is an inexhaustible supply of energy. By squandering mild, but you are footing your invoice.

The Customization Options in Mild There are modes each in lighting for veg and blossom. By way of instance, Cirrus T permits you to maintain a control.

The fundamental benefit is- lower power price. Plants want more of their light rather than during vegging. During cloning there's absolutely not any need of lights. That means that you are able to dial the amount of light in accordance with the use back in order to prevent wastage of power.

However, there's also side of it. Plants may suffer from development for almost two weeks and can get shocked should you alter the color of lights during development. The shifting modes in LEDs, won't create the issue of expansion for extended but you need to be prepared to confront it.

For the moment, it's necessary for you to pay your energy bills for getting nourishment and also for running lights, needed to nourish crops. Fixtures with a single style are simple to operate. Only overlook it and you have to turn that.

1000W LEDs have an output like 900W within an HPS light apparatus. 4 star ratings are awarded to 5 star ratings for fittings and fittings of endurance 900HPS using strength of 1000W HPS tech bulbs. Because it provides 1200W light Cirrus T5000 is the device than remainder of the three.

Canopy penetration Each of the producers claim their LEDs penetrate below canopy as in the event of HPS lighting. However, in fact, the situation is quite rare. 5 stars are awarded who permeate equal to 4 and HPS .

Region of Coverage for picking a glow lighting, specs ought to be discounted. Lumens are utilized for measuring the brightness of eyes. Attention ought to be paid to specs such as chromium and PAR together with the guidelines.

PAR (photosynthetically active radiation) is emitted from the colours in addition to the mild intensity. Your cannabis can be thriven by lights using a wide spectrum . PAR can quantify lights of 400-700nm from the spectrum. It ends red and as infrared and emerges to blue. King and 1000 W grow mild It is made up of 10W LED bulbs. These are more efficient when compared with 3W LEDs or 5W and more economical. They are engineered to maintain a balance between lumen output/PAR and policy area.

It's an extended life span. It absorbs only 185W of power saves your electricity consumptions.

It merely absorbs 0.185KWh each hour and so saves money over MH/HPS lamps.

Simply plug play with. It's a spectrum with yellow, white, blue, red, UV and IR that are like the colours of sun.

It's termed perfect for vegetables all flowers and plants. It's an excellent system. It includes little holes together with glass convection on its own LED plank .

There is dissipation of heat. Each LED keeps on working. The business contains professionals to develop, design and research and has its own factory.

The business can be available 24X7 and offers customer services. It's available at its cost on Amazon.

Light will not be great for 50,000 hours promised. Bestva 1000W dual processor The 10W Processor LEDs are brighter and efficient than 3W LEDs and the 5W.

1000W spectrum grow lights have proven to be quite beneficial to flowers, plants and vegetables.

It appears like a sunshine. Its fan process that is powerful is free and very trendy when compared to other lights of the variety.

Holes onto its aluminum panel and its glass makeover create the heat convection operate at roughly 50-60 degree F that is lower than lights.

It is only going to consume 185W when we compare 600W HPS lights and it. Its policy area is than every other reflector light. It's considered perfect for a region of 5.1'X4.7'. Its perfect height of setting is 24".

The manufacturer provides you warranty of 3 years along.

Not Waterproof Incredibly powerful. If watched could be harmful. It has lights of 1000W. Each LED comprises two parts of 5W which makes it brighter 3W and than 5W LEDs and double.

Since it absorbs 110W-120W power, it's an excellent energy saver. The brightness has a Lifespan and is quite high.

The UV technologies sterilizes the increase of germs that might hinder the development and its capacity to produce flowers of the plant.

Cell division enhances and promotes growth. This will raise the yield.

Its spectrum is designed after eight decades of research of a seasoned producer.

Its mild looks to sun that's valuable for non in addition to both flowering flowering plants.

Two fans for heating are put against overheat in its kit for protection. In working for hours, this retains the lights.

Its LEDs are effective in season of their plants. Lights have been replaced by it .

It absorbs a power of merely 185W which automatically conserves energy.

The spectrum of lights 630nm-660nm lights lights 430nm-470nm that is 590nm-610nm white lighting 6500K-3500K.

These bring wavelengths that are essential for the plants at flourishing in addition to stage.

It's broadly helpful in water breeding, tissue culture, spraying plants, plantation, pipeline farming, greenhouses gardens, flower farming and more.

0 notes

supernuttrash-blog · 6 years

Text

Some tips for Digital Projectors

Digital projectors are equipments of contemporary engineering. These are widely used to convert impression info right from your computer onto a display screen by means of lens system. Digital projectors provide visualization of information which is actually stored in a computer for presentation. These projectors encourage the viewers to watch moving images from your DVD, electronic adaptable disc player. Advertisers or sellers likewise use these projectors to provide demonstration of goods to a huge number of customers. It could very easily change composed paperwork onto an interactive whiteboard. Digital projectors perform an important role in the formation of home entertainment system programs. These projectors use resolution of SVGA normal i.e. 800?600 pixels in pricey gadgets. Value of electronic projector depends on its resolution as well as its brightness. When you?re gonna make use of it in big rooms or massive convention halls its brightness needs to be from 1,000 to four,000 ANSI lumens. Initial digital projectors, Eidophor projectors have been released in 1950. Eidopher projectors utilized an oily surface in a rotating disk with light shining through it and utilized an electron beam to disrupt oil in a particular manner. Eidophor projectors ended up incapable of generate shades. Today there are many premium quality designs of electronic projectors can be bought in market so Eidopher projectors are more uncommon. Pursuing 4 technologies are employed in digital projectors: High intensity CRT Lcd projectors using Lcd light gates Texas Instruments' DLP engineering Eidophor oil-film projectors (obsolete) At present Lcd projectors use Texas Instruments? DLP engineering whereas the top intensity CRT devices are suitable for enduring installations. Whole functioning of cathode ray tube electronic projectors is similar to CRT television established. These projectors might be configured with a single RGB colour tube which includes three shades pink, environmentally friendly and blue by using a solitary lens, one black & white tube having a rotating shade wheel or 3 RGB shade tubes with a few lenses. Projectors obtaining cathode ray tubes are generally bulky thats why these represent the best projectors for fixed installations. Liquid crystal display electronic projectors are portable and lighter enough when compared with CRT and can be simply shifted from one destination to another. They are significantly popular and for sale in numerous shapes and sizes. CRT and Liquid crystal display electronic projectors come within the type of transitive projectors. Reflective projectors are definitely the superior digital projectors that offer good quality images. They are affordable and offer next stage of amusement. Everybody can enjoy home entertainment system applications by using digital projectors.

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