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spanishskulduggery · 9 hours
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Why does "La niña de mis ojos" translate to The apple of my eye? Can you say this when referring to a male?
Yes, you can use it when referring to males as far as I know
The word here la niña is another way of saying "pupil (of the eye)" and it's not (generally) the "girl" meaning most people are used to
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It is weird but it's the same etymology, kind of. In Latin the word "pupil" came from pupa which is also the word for "girl" or "doll", and Spanish adapted that expression directly from Latin
[I believe this is the same etymology where you get "poppet", and therefore "puppet", where it meant girl and doll]
The pun existed in Latin too
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spanishskulduggery · 10 hours
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hola! me pregunto si hay una diferencia en sentido entre niño y chico o niña y chica? me parecen sinónimos pero creo que se usan en contextos diferentes
gracias!
I would say generally they kinda read as synonymous but there is a lot of nuance
chico/a is like "kid" - it literally means "small" so you can see it used as "small" or "little"
The main difference between the two is that chico/a can really be used for all ages; it can be "kid" or sometimes adult friends call each other this like "boy" or "girl" in a friendly way, almost like "bro" and "chick" [sometimes "dude" gets translated as chico/a; but friends being like "these are my bros" or "these are my girls" ...tends to be chico/a]
...You probably would not want to call your friend mi niño/a as it sounds very weird, like either they are much younger than you and/or you are their parent; while chico/a or mi chico/a can be very friendly and used for children or adults
With niño/a it tends to be "child" sometimes almost "baby", and so it's best applied to very young kids; the official word for "babysitter" is niñero/a for example, and la niñez refers to "childhood" but I always take it to mean "when I was very little"
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Small additional note: niño/a is also sometimes used to discuss the gender of babies, like in the "it's a boy" or "it's a girl" kind of way
niño/a tends to imply a very young child so if someone calls an adult this they are either a parent talking to their child... or sometimes it can read as belittling, calling someone a baby or immature
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spanishskulduggery · 2 days
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Hola, profe:
Necesito tu ayuda.
"Los árboles de roble amarillo han sido tendencia todo el fin de semana por crear paisajes de gran esplendor".
I understand the meaning of "han sido tendencia" (yo creo... lol), but I don't understand the phrasing/syntax. Is "Ser tendencia por" just some sort of phrase or expression that I don't know? Am I just thinking too Englishy?
Can you provide any insights?
Yes, it's a phrase! Or, a bit of a newer social media expression I believe
ser tendencia is "to be trending" or "to be a trend"
And the por is "due to"
Like if you're on social media you might see someone ha sido tendencia por sus comentarios which is "they've been trending due to / because of their comments"
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I believe tendencias is something like the translation for "trending", so that's why it might be a bit of a weird construction for you thinking in English
Normally you'd expect es una tendencia but saying ha sido tendencia feels like "it was featured" or "it was trending" rather than "it's a trend", so it makes me think of social media
por is being used the way it normally is "due to" or "because of"
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spanishskulduggery · 3 days
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hello
i have a grasp on present continuous tense, present tense, and past tense on Spanish! Yaaay🥳 I just started learning the future tense, and I was wondering how we make the sentences with “if” 🤔
for example how can I say “If he learns Spanish I will talk in Spanish to him”
Recently learned your blog you are a gem💕
If you're using future tense, you can use present tense with "if"
si aprende español, hablaré con él en español "if he learns Spanish, I will talk to him in Spanish"
hablaré being the future tense yo; you could also use voy a hablar
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The other option which is a different feel is imperfect subjunctive + conditional
This is "if he were to learn Spanish, I would speak to him in Spanish"
It's a hypothetical unlikely situation
That would be si aprendiera español, hablaría con él en español
The imperfect subjunctive like this tends to be very hypothetical; this is like "if I were rich" or "if I was the boss" etc. it's called a "contrary to fact statement"
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That first example with present + future implies "oh he could learn Spanish and then I'd talk to him in Spanish"; this is like "when he does then I will"
The second is presenting a hypothetical situation like "if he learned Spanish, then I'd talk to him in Spanish"; it kind of implies he wouldn't or isn't currently, or that it's an unlikely possible future
So your use of future tense vs. conditional would depend on how certain the "if" is
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You can also do it in reverse; hablaré con él en español si/cuando aprende español "I'll talk to him in Spanish if/when he learns Spanish"
Same with the imperfect subjunctive/conditional
Your if/then statements can always be then/if statements
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spanishskulduggery · 3 days
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"No hay nadie aquí que sepa algo de medicina?"
"No haya nadie aquí que sabe algo de medicina"?
Which is correct and why? I'm stuck on unknown subjunctives vs normal indicative. Thank you 🌟
It should be the first one
[It is possible to have a double subjunctive if you had a separate subjunctive clause like es imposible que no haya nadie que sepa algo de medicina "it's impossible for no one to know anything about medicine"; but it isn't correct to have the no hay + indicative]
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A possible other example like this is there's a popular comedy called Aquí no hay quien viva which is translated as "no one could live here" though literally it's like "here there is no one who lives" or "no one (can/would) live here"
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This is like a subjunctive of doubt or uncertainty; but if that's confusing try and think of is as no hay nadie/quien + subjunctive as a rule
It's saying "there's no one here who would know medicine"; so no hay nadie que sepa algo de medicina
If you phrase it without the no it becomes indicative
(Also I know medicina here means like "medical knowledge" so just bear with me for the next translations)
¿No hay nadie que sepa algo de medicina? = "Is there no one here that knows medicine?" [indefinite, uncertain] Hay nadie que sepa algo de medicina. = There's no one here that knows any medicine. [indefinite, uncertain; "there's no one here that would know"] ¿Hay alguien aquí que sabe algo de medicina? = Is there someone here that knows some medicine? Hay alguien aquí que sabe algo de medicina. = There's someone here that knows some medicine.
With the negative you're introducing doubt like "would there happen to be", or "might there be"
When it's positive/affirmative [meaning no negation words] it doesn't imply doubt
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It can be hard to explain so - this is semi-related - this is the same thing that trips people up with the following three phrases:
Pienso que alguien (lo) sabe. = I think someone knows. No pienso que nadie (lo) sepa. = I don't think anyone knows. Creo que alguien (lo) sabe. = I believe someone knows. No creo que nadie (lo) sepa. = I don't believe anyone knows. Estoy seguro/a de que alguien (lo) sabe. = I'm sure that someone knows. No estoy seguro/a de que alguien (lo) sepa. = I'm not sure anyone knows.
In the negative forms you can kind of hear in English how someone might say "I don't think anyone would know" or "I'm not sure anyone would know"
That's why it comes out in subjunctive
In the affirmative you're asking about the existence of something or stating your confidence that something exists
In the negative it asks a question about the possible existence of something
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Another possible example is no hay nada que pueda detenerme which is literally like "there's nothing that can stop me"; while a simple nada puede detenerme is indicative, the subjunctive is like "there's nothing that could stop me"
In English try and think about something like "there's no force on Earth that could stop me", it's got a subjunctive twang to it too
But if it's not sinking in, just sort of think of this as a rule:
Hay algo/alguien + indicative
No hay nada/nadie + subjunctive
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spanishskulduggery · 3 days
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If I'm waiting for a person, I assume it's "esperar a" because of the Personal A. But in examples, I see the "a" for some inanimate objects and not for others (the stairs, the bus, the dress to be ready, the truck to pass, the pencil sharpener, the elevator, etc.). Is there a rule?
In general yes, esperar a alguien is "to wait for someone"
You can say something like esperar el tren "to wait for the train" or esperar el avión "to wait for the plane", or sometimes it's esperar en la escalera "to wait in the stairwell" or esperar en el andén "to wait on the platform" which is a statement regarding position
[Note: Some people DO use the a with inanimate objects/common nouns but it isn't considered strictly correct... so you may see someone say espero al tren it really should be espero el tren]
The thing you may be seeing is esperar a que + subjunctive, which isn't the personal a it's a subjunctive clause; it's "waiting for + something to happen"
That a is more like a preposition than the personal a
In other words:
Espero el tren. = I am waiting for the train. Espero que el tren llegue. = I hope the train comes. Espero a que llegue el tren. = I am waiting until the train comes. / I am waiting for the train to come.
esperar a que + subjunctive is like "to await"; and especially in subjunctive clauses it differentiates it from "to hope that" esperar and "to wait until" esperar
...To put it more simply esperar que and esperar a que get translated differently in English as "to hope" vs. "to wait/await", but both use subjunctive
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A handful of verbs do this, like obligar/forzar a que can be "to force/require that (something be done)"
It's not many verbs but a is a very useful and multipurpose preposition
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spanishskulduggery · 4 days
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May I ask on the usage of the terms te and me?
I'd like to know the rules so I know when to use them. I think they're used to indicate who owns the action, like "me gusta" or "te encanto". But then I see them used for other situations, like "me llamo" or "te amo".
It also makes me wonder why "tú" and "yo" can't be used in the same context, such as "tu amo mi". Too literal maybe?
I'm not sure how far you are in Spanish so I'm going to quickly go over some things and I'm sorry if it's too much info all at once or if it sounds like I'm talking down to you, I just want to be very clear on things and grammatical terms so you can look things up if you need to
First, your question is really about "pronouns" vs. "objects" vs. "prepositional objects"
In other words if you were asking about English you would be asking what the difference between "I" and "me", or "he" and "him", or "we" and "us" is
I think the easiest way to explain it is that when you mix them up it sounds like caveman speech kind of? This might be long - let me know if there's anything you need more info on
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Pronouns:
yo -> I tú -> you (informal) él -> he ella -> she ellos / ellas -> they ustedes -> you all vosotros/vosotras -> you all [informal; Spain] nosotros/nosotras -> we
Pronouns act as subjects, taking the place of people (or things). Because they're subjects they're the things that do the things.
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Objects are a bit different - they mark who/what is receiving the action. In Spanish's case there are direct objects [things acted upon] and indirect objects [to whom or for whom something is done]
The objects are technically different, but aside from 3rd person they look exactly the same. There is a difference in what verbs take direct objects or indirect objects though; as an example, the verbs like gustar use indirect objects
Direct objects:
yo -> me tú -> te él -> lo ella -> la ellos -> los ellas -> las vosotros/vosotras -> os nosotros/nosotras -> nos
*Note: ustedes could be los or las depending on the gender of the "you all"
Indirect objects:
yo -> me tú -> te él / ella / usted -> le ellos / ellas / ustedes -> les vosotros/vosotras -> os nosotros/nosotras -> nos
As an example between the differences, decir la verdad "to tell the truth" could go to la digo "I say it" where the la takes the place of the noun
Then if you're "telling someone (something)" it's le digo "I tell them"
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In other words, saying using the objects instead of the subjects is like "you love I" or "us love she", it comes out wrong. It's not so off that someone wouldn't be able to piece together what you mean but it comes out a bit... "caveman-y" if you know what I mean
Note: This is also ignoring reflexives which aren't necessarily "objects" in the traditional sense; they mark when the subject and object are the same - so me llamo is literally "I call myself", and te llamas "you call yourself" though it comes out as "my name is" and "your name is"
Put simply, the reflexive marker will match the conjugation if it's reflexive - a yo is conjugated like yo but then you have the reflexive pronoun... so it's me llamo
Those other objects are me, te, se [all of 3rd person], nos, and os. Again, it's only 3rd person you need to worry about
But with reflexives something like se baña "he/she bathes" vs. se bañan "they bathe" is distinguished by the verb conjugation matching
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Prepositional objects are a little bit different; they're specific objects that come up when you use a preposition - primarily, a, de, en, entre, hacia, para, por and a few others*
And for the most part there's only two to know
yo -> mí tú -> ti
There is also sí which is supposed to take the place of "it", like en sí is often "in and of itself"... it takes the place of se which is primarily a 3rd person thing
You will see something like a/con sí mismo/a "to/with oneself" here and there
But in general it's something like por mí "for me / on my behalf", por ti "for you / on your behalf", then it goes to like por él/ella/nosotros/vosotros so it's not really another set of words, just two
The one preposition to watch is con because that is a bit irregular:
conmigo is "with me"
contigo is "with you"
[they come from Latin cum mecum and cum tecum so it's an irregularity that passed over to Spanish]
You also occasionally see consigo "with itself" but not as commonly
These in general are easy enough to spot. Really what might trip you up is when a verb uses a special preposition which do happen but they're the minority of verbs:
Pienso en ti. = I think of you. Me acuerdo de ti. = I remember you. Puedes contar conmigo. = You can count on me. / You can trust me. Votas por mí. = You're voting for me.
Those prepositional verbs you learn as you go for the most part.
Your first exposure to these is primarily with gustar where it's more emphatic, as the a
Me gusta = I like it. A mí me gusta. = I like it. [more like "I do indeed like it" or "I am the one who likes it" or possibly "well I like it"] Te gusta = You like it A ti te gusta = You are the one who likes it
And again past that you're using regular pronouns. Only thing to keep in mind there is when you have a + masculine nouns
Like al señor le gusta "the man likes it" vs. a la señora le gusta "the woman likes it"
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spanishskulduggery · 5 days
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I have two female dogs. Is it bad to refer to them as "nuestras perras"? I mean, I know it's technically correct, but does it have the same feel as if I talked about my "two bitches" in English? Technically correct, but potentially offensive?
No, it's not the same. Spanish speakers will call their female dogs perras or perritas and it causes much less of an issue than English-speakers seeing it
It's only offensive if you could be talking about a person, in which case "female dog" turns to "bitch"
Semi-related: There is a word for "bitch" that is pretty much always vulgar but that's zorra. It literally means "female fox". With perra you can get away with it if you're actually talking about a dog but you probably never want to say zorra in polite conversation
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spanishskulduggery · 5 days
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Does obligar and forzar someone to do something the same thing? Or to they carry a slightly distinct connotations?
If anything obligar is maybe a nicer way to say it, but generally same idea. Especially in contracts or legalese saying someone is "obliged" to do something is much nicer than "forced"
I would say if I had to pick out nuance between them, obligar is less physical than forzar since forzar is directly related to "strength"
I tend to think of obligar as being more emotional or words related or possibly being related to duty/honor or obligation, and forzar I think of as physical
[Also in games, forzar is "to lockpick" so it has a few other little meanings but it's like "to force open" just with an item, but still physical]
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spanishskulduggery · 8 days
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What are the normal ways of saying daydreaming in Spanish?
The most common default way is soñar despierto/a which is "to dream (while) awake"
The other basic way is estar/andar en/por las nubes which is literally "to be in the clouds" so it's pretty much "to have one's head in the clouds"
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Otherwise someone might use the adjectives distraído/a which is "distracted" - like andar distraído/a means "to go around distracted" like to not be paying attention or to have something on your mind; you often see it as "scattered" or "absentminded" [sometimes you also see despistado/a which is literally "without a clue" or "without a path" so it's "aimless", "distracted", "absentminded", or "forgetful"]
Another is ser ensimismado/a which is understood as "to be in one's own world" or "to be engrossed (in one's own thoughts)". Literally ensimismado/a or the verb ensimismar(se) is related to en + sí + mismo/a which is "into + one's (own) + self"; so it often carries the connotation of being very self-related... rather than simply distracted or absentminded, it's more understood as being "oblivious" to others and "pensative"
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spanishskulduggery · 9 days
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Hello, I am a beginner, learning spanish on my own.
Sentence structure is subject+verb+object?
Not always
Spanish has a VERY flexible word order
The basic sentence structure [declarative] is subject + verb + object [(tú) estás bien "you are okay"]
Questions [interrogative sentences] are verb + subject + object [¿Cómo estás tú? = "How are you?"]
Some exclamatory sentences also do this.
The difficult part of this is that sometimes declarative statements will do verb + subject + object for emphasis
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The other big issue with this is that objects can sometimes by object pronouns which you won't see for a while but just be aware that something like compro flores "I buy flowers" turns into las compro "I buy them" where las flores is feminine plural so the direct object pronoun is las
In other words, a lot of object pronouns [direct, indirect, and reflexive] come before the conjugated verb
And this becomes more fluid if you have helping verbs - quiero comprar las flores "I want to buy the flowers"... but you could say las quiero comprar "I want to buy them" OR quiero comprarlas "I want to buy them" and both are totally valid
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In short, if you're just starting out it's enough to say that most basic sentences are subject + verb + object; questions are almost always verb + subject + object
And as you go forward just be aware that the word order is EXTREMELY malleable and try not to worry too much; you will often see many example sentences all over the place so you get more of a sense of what is common or how it reads as more emphatic in certain cases
You won't learn it all at once so don't feel overwhelmed
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spanishskulduggery · 10 days
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Not to hijack a post but it's a slight bit different than the way the English makes it seem
It is daydreaming, but it's often interpreted like you're not being mindful or you weren't paying attention. If someone accuses you of this, they're telling you to pay attention because you weren't listening or aren't aware of your surroundings
It's usually something more like "zoning out" / "spacing out" - somewhere between "head in the clouds" or maybe "navel gazing" in English, it's like distracted by your own thoughts in a way that makes you seem out of it
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spanishskulduggery · 10 days
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Found out that one of the words for "peanut" can be either cacahuete OR cacahuate
I've been using cacahuete for so long that when my search was like "did you mean cacahuate" I started to panic thinking I'd been using the wrong word all my life
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spanishskulduggery · 10 days
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ideologically i dont agree with spain but they kind of went off with coplas
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spanishskulduggery · 11 days
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In the Spanish Gravity Falls dub, the “My ex-wife still misses me..but her aim is getting better!”
Is translated as “My ex-esposa todavía me quiere…¡me quiere matar!”
Roughly translating to “My ex-wife still wants me… wants me dead!”
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spanishskulduggery · 14 days
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So like you know the English saying "curve ball"? Not literally like in baseball, but like unexpected circumstance?
Does Spanish have its own "curve ball" phrase??
Typically it would be una bola curva because the expression does come from baseball... so you could see arrojar/tirar/lanzar una bola curva as "to throw a curve ball" in either sense [all those verbs can mean "to throw"]
A little less literal would be something like un giro inesperado "an unexpected twist" though it's not necessarily negative, just unexpected - it usually takes dar as far as I know, so it's literally "to give an unexpected turn/spin"
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Otherwise, I think you could say tomar por sorpresa "to take by surprise" or tomar desprevenido/a "to catch unaware" / "to catch off guard", same general idea
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spanishskulduggery · 14 days
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Hey Profe 🍓:
Nuance. In English, "If I have an issue, I'll make it known."
Would the translation have "known" be "se lo hago saber" or the participle "sabido"?
Would this principle apply for other "conditions" following make? (Make clear, make sure, make subtle etc.)
In this case the expression is normally hacer saber "to make known", so it would be se lo hago saber "I make it known (to them)"
It's not really a pattern here - hacer saber is its own kind of phrase
The other ones you mentioned like "to make clear" and "to make sure" have their own verbs usually - aclarar "to clarify" and aseguar(se) "to make sure"
If you're trying to use hacer, it's usually either hacer + infinitive...... or often you can use a subjunctive expression instead - hacer que "to make it so that"
In other words:
aclarar = to clarify, to clear up hacer claro = to make clear quedar claro = to be made clear [more impersonal] hacer que quede claro = to make clear [lit. "to let it be clear"]
I think hacer sabido can exist but it's less common; it kind of reads to me like "let it be known"
[A lot of the verbs that have "to make" in them are often -ificar, -izar, or you can sometimes make your own verbs with -ear; like I've seen "to binge watch" as either maratonear literally "to marathon", OR bingewatchear because English lol]
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Sometimes there's a specific verb like asegurar(se) is "to make sure of" in most cases; you can say hacer seguro/a but it can also come out as "to make safe" which is why the verb is sometimes preferable - because seguro/a means both "sure/certain" and "safe/secure"
For "to make subtle" I would say hacer (más) sutil. Possibly you could say suavizar "to soften" or sutilizar which isn't exactly "to make subtle" but sort of? It's less common of a verb, but everyone would understand the root and what you mean
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A common thing I use is hacer que parezca "to make it seem (a certain way)"; which is a subjunctive of parecer [-cer and -cir verbs usually have the -zco/-zca endings like conocer and conducir]
An example would be hace que parezca más sutil "to make it seem subtler"
Or hacer que sea "to make it (be)"... like hacer que las cosas sean más sencillas "to make it so that things are easier" rather than hacer sencillo/a "to make simple"
hacer que sea(n) and hacer que parezca(n) are really helpful if you're talking more about impressions, how something might appear, or "to make it so that"
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