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#or up to 10 smaller chapters over the course of a equal amount of weeks?
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How to Get More Reviews: A Data Analysis
A time-shifted serial correlation analysis of reviewing and being reviewed.
Acknowledgements: Investigation by Arthur Liu with thanks to Dr. Cecilia Aragon and Jenna Frens for feedback and editing and also to team lead Niamh Froelich.
Is it true that giving someone a review will make that person more likely to write reviews as well? Conversely, is it true instead that writing more reviews yourself will help you get more reviews from others?
In this post, we explore one avenue of reciprocity by analyzing the time series of reviews given vs. reviews received. 
Of course, you have to be careful with this technique. The inspiration of the analysis we utilized comes partly from Tyler Vigen’s Spurious Correlations site (http://www.tylervigen.com/spurious-correlations) where he shows interesting correlations between clearly unrelated events. With a humorous perspective, he reminds us that correlation is not evidence of causation (since sociology doctorates and rocket launches are totally coincidental), but the analysis techniques here are an interesting technique to investigate potential relationships between two different time series.
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Back to our topic of reciprocity, we wanted to investigate the relationship between reviews given and reviews received. We had two hypotheses that we were interested in testing: first, we were curious if users who received more reviews would be more inclined to give reviews themselves. Second, we were curious if giving reviews would help increase the number of reviews you personally received.
To get into specifics, here is an example plot of a real user’s review activity.
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Let’s break it down. This plot follows the activity of a single user over the course of several years. It plots the total amount of reviews that they gave (in red) and also the total number of reviews that they had received on their fan fictions (in blue). What this chart shows us is that this is a user who has had a very consistent amount of activity in terms of giving out reviews. It also captures spikes in the number of reviews received (blue) which may correspond to having released a new chapter.
If there was a strong link between reviews given and reviews received in either direction, we would expect to see that increases in one is followed by increases in the other. Here is an example where we witness such a relationship:
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Since it is harder to analyze the change in activity level from these cumulative plots, we then looked at the total number of reviews given each month. Here’s what that looks like for the same person:
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This time, it is more apparent that there is a similar pattern in the activity behavior for the reviews given and reviews received. For this example, that similarity is a similar spiking pattern.
From Vigen’s website, we could naively apply a correlation calculation here, but there is a glaring flaw: one of the time series is clearly ahead of the other. So, what if we just shifted one of the time series so they overlapped and then computed the correlation? This is the basic intuition of serial correlation: we apply a range of possible shifts and then compute the correlation between these shifted graphs. The one with the highest correlation would be the one with the best match.
The results for different shifts:
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The best shift of “11 frames”:
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In other words, for this person, giving a lot of reviews correlates well with receiving a lot of reviews roughly 11 months later. Of course, this doesn’t prove any sort of causation, but we can speculate that the increased amount of reviews this user gave helped boost the amount of reviews they got later!
From this analysis of an individual person, we were curious how this extended to the larger community to see if these same trends existed! The short answer, “eh, not really,” but it is interesting to see why this cool pattern might not generalize adequately.
1. Not all individuals get reviews and give reviews at the same scale
Some users just like to give reviews and some users just like to write reviews!
For instance, here is someone who gives a lot of reviews and didn’t get many themselves.
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Here is someone who gave some reviews, but then focused on writing stories and received a lot more reviews instead!
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For graphs like these, it is hard to apply the analysis we did earlier because the relationship is likely a lot weaker or there might just not be enough data points to capture it anyway.
We can summarize these examples for the overall population by looking at the ratio between reviews given to reviews received.
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For this sample of 10k users, we see that those who primarily receive reviews will have a larger ratio (right), and users who primarily give reviews will have a smaller ratio (left). In more detail, a ratio of 1.0 means that they only received reviews. For example: 10 reviews received / (10 reviews received + 0 reviews given) = 1. For a ratio of 0.0, it means they received no reviews. For each ratio, the graph shows the total count of the 10k users who had that ratio.
To address issue (1), we reduced the scope down to users who had a relatively equal ratio of reviews given vs. reviews received.
Additionally, we pruned for users who had received at least 10 reviews. This way, we would have enough data points to use for our analysis. In fact, this is also why there is a large spike in the 0.5 ratio which consisted of a lot of users who had written one or two reviews and received an equal amount.
With this cleaned up, we also computed the lags on a finer scale--weeks--instead of months since we noticed that months were not granular enough. We computed the most common lags, and here is a plot of the results. This lag is the shift applied to received reviews, and the correlation is how well the two series correlated with each other after the shift. A correlation of 1 means that as one increased, the other increased as well, a correlation of -1 means that as one decreased, the other increased, and smaller values such as 0.8 mean that the correlation was positive, but less strong.
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So the result here is both a little messier and structured than we had hoped from our hypothesis, but that’s part of the research process!
To elaborate, in the X dimension, the lag, there isn’t a particular range that was significantly denser than the rest. In fact, if we looked at the histogram, we see something like this:
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So we lied a little, it looks like that last lag of +20 weeks looks really popular, but this is actually an artifact caused by the serial correlation process. If you recall this graph:
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The red line is the chosen lag at the peak. In this case, the shifting actually peaked, but if we had truncated the graph at 5, it would have simply picked that highest shift.
Not convinced? Here’s the same analytics, but now we calculated up to a lag of 40.
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Looks like the 20 bucket wasn’t particularly special after all.
So ignoring this last bucket (and the first bucket for a similar reason), we notice that our histogram matches this noisiness that we observed for the lags.
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What does this mean? It suggests that there is no general pattern that can succinctly summarize the larger population, and that we are unable to conclude that there is a common average positive or negative lag relationship between the number of reviews someone has given and the number of reviews that they have received. Some authors sent more reviews after receiving more reviews (positive lags), some authors received more reviews after getting reviews (negative lags), and some authors did not exhibit much of a relationship either way (the first and last buckets which didn’t find a reasonable shift). Although these relationships do exist, the timing was not consistent overall so we can’t say anything about fanfiction.net authors in general.
So...
2. Looking across users, we do not see consistent behavior in a time-shifted relationship between a person’s received and given review count
Even when we look at the lags with the highest correlation (r > 0.7), we see that this even distribution of lags still holds.
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In summary, this isn’t the dead end! (With research, it rarely is!) But it helps paint a better picture of the users in the community and why this approach may not be well suited to encapsulate it well. We see that the relationship between reviews received and given doesn’t follow a necessarily time-shifted relationship and that in fact, this shift can go either direction. Try taking a look at your own reviewing trends, and see where you would be located within these graphs! Are you someone who has a positive shift or a negative time shift… or no strong correlation at all?
In the meanwhile, we’re still exploring some other interesting approaches in reciprocity! Stay tuned :)
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needtherapy · 3 years
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soaring, carried aloft on the wind...continued 15
A story for Xichen and Mingjue, in another time and another place.
The Beifeng, the mighty empire of the north, invaded more than a year ago, moving inexorably south and east.
In order to buy peace, the chief of the Lan clan has given the Beifeng warlord a gift, his second oldest son in marriage. However, when Xichen finds out he makes a plan.
He, too, can give a gift to the Beifeng warlord, and he will not regret it.
Part 1: 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 / 5 / 6 / 7 / 8 / 9 / 10 / 11 / 12 / 13   Part 2: 14 / 15 / … HOME
It’s complete on AO3 here.
Notes: Check the tags if you’re concerned about the pairings ;)
For translations of the entirely fictitious Beifeng language, you’ll have to scroll to notes. I’m only going to translate something that’s not clear in the text. Sadly, there’s just not any other good way to do it on Tumblr!
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Chapter 15 Earlier
Huaisang looked nervous, and it was not an expression that sat easily on his face. He paced in Xichen’s tent, ignoring his questions until Xichen finally set down his book and grabbed Huaisang’s arm.
“Anati, I am going to throw you out of my tent and into a snowbank if you do not tell me what bothers you.”
It was an idle threat, and they both knew it. Xichen was far too happy to do any such thing, and everyone knew it. He did try not to walk through every day with a foolish smile on his face, but he knew he failed most of the time, especially the days he woke to the sight of Mingjue’s face next to his. Especially on the days Mingjue stopped to see Xichen while he was working in the hospital to kiss his forehead. Especially on the days they put on their warmest clothes and rode out across the frozen plains together. Xichen was not so childish as to think they would never have any conflicts, but he was also not so naïve as to think the love he felt was common. It certainly wasn’t something he’d ever seen before.
Huaisang sank down onto a round pillow and sighed. “Anakau wants me to tell you something, but I’m a coward, and I don’t want to.”
Huaisang was in no way a coward, but he looked truly miserable, and Xichen’s heart stopped. All he could think was that Huaisang had heard some news about his family, or something terrible had happened to his brother, and his grip on Huaisang’s wrist tightened.
“Tell me,” he whispered hoarsely.
“We have had an offer from the Jin clan, an offer of good faith. They wish us to end our current advancement on their city and consider negotiations. I do not wish to accept anything…” Huaisang paused, his face darkening. “I’m sorry, I can’t explain more, but we are considering it, at least for the duration of winter. It would buy us time.”
Xichen let out a whooshing breath of relief, but Huaisang looked unhappy still.
“It is an offer like...like the Lan clan made.”
Xichen sat back and instinctively pulled on the stony, impassive mask he had not needed in months. “Mingjue wants to accept?”
Did he have a right to feel betrayed? Icy fingers crawled up Xichen’s back as he considered the terms of the treaty. For his pleasure. Given first consideration. In equal status. Pledge of life bond. No, they were breaking no terms, but he had thought…
It didn’t matter what he had thought. He reminded himself of the facts. He was a gift, not a choice. And he had no choices either. He could not go home to his father.
Xichen dug his thumbnail into his palm to focus his thoughts and still his expression into neutrality, but he must have looked betrayed, because Huaisang shook his head, words rushing out of him.
“It would not be like you. No one could be like you. There are reasons this is important, and they don’t have anything to do with you. Anakau is not happy with me, but it...I think we should accept a conditional agreement, a trial period of sorts, as though we are seeing if the situation suits. It would only be for three months, and it would not be real, Xichen. You are not being replaced.”
This last was said with such guilty vehemence, some of Xichen’s hurt faded, but not all of it. Perhaps not replaced, but he can’t imagine this won’t change things.
“I think we need to do this,” Huaisang added. “We won’t get another opportunity to...well, anyway, anakau told me I had to talk to you about it first. If it helps, I think he’s punishing me.”
It did not help. Xichen still felt wounded, creeping apprehension slithering around his gut. He should not have become so accustomed to his life over the past few months. He should not have forgotten what his role was here. He didn’t want this, but there was nothing he could say. No matter what he felt, no matter what he believed Mingjue felt, in truth, Xichen was only a visitor here.
“You do not need my permission, Huaisang,” Xichen reminded him, aiming for serenity but not quite managing to keep the disappointment entirely of his voice, and Huaisang sagged.
“I know, but I wanted you to know before...before he arrives. If I didn’t believe it was necessary…” He ran his fingers over his hair, disrupting some of it from his braid. Standing swiftly, he stalked to the door, but paused and turned back. “I think of us as friends and brothers, Xichen, and I hope you can forgive me.”
He disappeared, and Xichen hoped so too.
When Mingjue came for dinner, he hovered in the doorway, hands behind his back, uncertainty stamped on his face, until Xichen sighed and beckoned him in.
“This is not for me,” he said quietly, without moving. “You are...angry?
The worst part was, Xichen wasn’t. He believed Huaisang. He knew the brothers had secrets. And he loved Mingjue. He could trust them for a little while longer, he thought, ignoring the voice that said you have no other option.
“No. Just worried,” he said, mostly truthfully, and then Mingjue moved, crushing Xichen in his arms and tucking his face against Xichen’s neck.
“Komi auha, edas ahora,” he murmured, and Xichen let out a breath he didn’t know he was holding, sinking himself deeper into Mingjue’s embrace like a slowly submerging stone.
Evidently, the Jin clan expected their offer to be accepted, because the Jin emissary—it makes it easier for Xichen to think of him in political terms—arrived by the end of the next week. Huaisang asked Xichen to attend the greeting, and Xichen only agreed for the chance to silently observe the Jin man. He noted with unkind satisfaction that Mingjue’s face was still filled with storm clouds when he looked at his brother.
It was disappointing, though, that Jin Guangyao, the man Huaisang said was the eldest son of the Jin clan chief, was more appealing than Xichen wished he was. He was a little taller than Huaisang and looked to be Xichen’s age or even younger, with fine, delicate features and large soft eyes that reminded Xichen of the deer who lurked around the horse yards, hoping to steal their grain.
Jin Guangyao bowed deeply to Mingjue, spine stiff, shoulders straight. “Chifeng-Zun, this one is willing to serve in any way necessary to ensure peace for three months as agreed. Or longer.”
Mingjue’s expression didn’t change and he didn’t respond to Huaisang’s translation immediately, but Xichen thought his eyes had an appraising look in them, hopefully only curious about Jin Guangyao’s rigorous formality and not interested in his perfect skin and full mouth. Jin Guangyao looked up at him from lowered eyelashes, a curve of a smile on his lips, and Mingjue arched an eyebrow.
“Ti erodino anot auha. Eina et nagita di pia ti?” Mingjue asked Huaisang, and Huaisang frowned at him.
Neither of them was looking at Jin Guangyao, so only Xichen saw his reaction to Mingjue’s blunt assessment—He looks weak. What use is he? Anger flashed across his eyes, disappearing as swiftly as one of Wangji’s moods, and Xichen realized that if nothing else, Jin Guangyao spoke enough Orera to be insulted. How interesting.
Huaisang led them to Jin Guangyao’s tent, near Xichen’s. It was smaller and there were spells set in twisting lines of metallic thread on the door flap. Xichen had been learning about the Ikarahu magic since his birthday, hoping to use Sikunadis to its full potential. Their magic was  more ambient than innate, theoretically unlimited in scope, and skilled users could form fire-like towers of heat, shift piles of dirt, control bodies of water, or cause great gusts of wind. However, it was slower and more difficult to access than Xichen’s power, requiring complex drawings in air or on surfaces to hold the magic or precise positioning of the hands and fingers.
The magic could also be stored in small amounts in the metal Sikunadis was made of, and Ikarharu craftsmen used thin wires of it in weaving, in books, in healing tools, even in the bridles they used to break wild horses. Xichen wasn’t able to pull magic from the air, ground, or water the way the Ikarahu did yet—Huaisang thought he would eventually be able to learn the skill—but he could activate the woven spells. The ones on Jin Guangyao’s tent were, to Xichen’s eyes, very clearly a lock.
Jin Guangyao frowned at the guards. “Is this one a prisoner?”
Huaisang laughed merrily. “No, you aren’t a prisoner, Guangyao. The guards are for your safety, of course.”
The man’s chin tilted up slightly when Huaisang said his name, although Xichen wasn’t sure if it was offense at the informality or if he suspected the lie. Two interesting things, he thought.
Xichen had heard Kitingi crying overhead as they walked, but Huaisang always seemed to know when she wanted to land. He held up a hand before they entered Jin Guangyao’s new home, and with a rustle of wings, she was there, alighting so swiftly it was as though she had appeared from nowhere.
“Oh,” Guangyao said, and for a single breath, there was something different on his face, a look of naked wonder, a sudden tempest of intelligence that turned into curiosity. “She’s beautiful.”
Huaisang’s expression sharpened. “How do you know Kitingi is a female?” “Males have black eye masks,” Guangyao said absently, without taking his eyes from Kitingi, and Kitingi preened one outstretched wing, accepting his admiration as her due.
“You are very observant, Guangyao. Where did you learn about munaku?” Huaisang asked with a casual grin.
He set Kitingi on Xichen’s shoulder and Jin Guangyao’s fingers twitched, as though he wanted to lift his hand to intercept her, but as quickly as the impulse had compelled him, it passed, and he straightened, the calm sea returning to his face.
Instead of answering Huaisang, he bowed to Xichen with a dazzling smile that showed off perfect white teeth and dimples that made him look younger. “Although we have never spoken, this one is familiar with your reputation. Would this one be allowed to visit Zewu-Jun?”
“Zewu-Jun is not a prisoner either, Guangyao,” Huaisang said before Xichen could answer. “When he is not with Ipira’orhew Ikira, he is generous enough to spend time helping our healers, though, so don’t be offended if he’s hard to find.”
Jin Guangyao’s smile was tight, and he nodded understanding. Xichen thought he truly did understand Huaisang’s meaning. He felt sorry for this man, who seemed gentle and polite and ill-suited to be a political prisoner.
“Is Ipira’orhew Ikira the title Chifeng-Zun would prefer?” Jin Guangyao asked blandly, and Huaisang waved his hand dismissively.
“It doesn’t matter one way or the other. Whichever is easier for you to say.” Jin Guangyao took a moment to digest this, and then asked, “Does Huaisang have a title he would prefer?”
Xichen was startled. He had never thought to ask if Huasiang had a title. Huaisang seemed startled too, and Xichen thought he might not answer.
He pursed his lips thoughtfully, but eventually replied, “I do not necessarily prefer it, but my title is Oringa'anhu Ikira.”
Hidden Cat Lord, Xichen translated in his head without smiling as he wanted to. It seemed fitting.
Jin Guangyao rolled the words around, faster with the unfamiliar tones than Xichen had been. “It is pleasing to say. If there is no objection, this one will use it.”
Huaisang turned with a careless shrug, taking Xichen’s elbow to lead him out of the tent, but the expression on his face was not one Xichen had ever seen before.
“I don’t like him,” Qingyang told him over dinner, sniffing her cup of white tea.
Xichen had found that the Ikarahu actually liked their bitter, dark tea. For months, he had despaired of ever drinking anything palatable again until the day Mingjue presented him with a jar of delicate white tea that smelled like summer and was immediately recognizable as one of the finest Zhao teas. Xichen hoarded it fiercely, but he was willing to share it with Qingyang, because she, at least, would appreciate it.  
Although she still taught him Orera, Qingyang had recently begun spending her free time in the company of Titakau, the Ikarahu healer who was teaching Xichen her tribe’s way of using tiny needles to alleviate pain and adjust energy flow. The woman had watched Qingyang with huge dark eyes for months and had eventually worked up the courage to do more than look. Xichen was happy for Qingyang, whose feet seemed to be drifting on air, but he missed her and was not above bribing her with tea. Selfishly, he wanted her opinion on Jin Guangyao.
He took a sip and held it in his mouth before asking, “Do you know him?”
“I have met him. He’s considered charming and handsome.” She shrugged as if they were rumors she couldn’t personally verify, and Xichen suppressed a smile. “I’m not sure anyone knows him. More importantly, and more unfortunately, I know the Jin chief. At best, Guangyao is an agent of his father. At worst, he is a true son of his father.” She shuddered and took another sip.
“It would be better if he was a spy?” Xichen asked, and Qingyang noded without elaborating. “Do you think that is likely?”
She shrugged. “Who knows, but he is too clever and too self-possessed to be here for any reason but his own. I don’t trust him, and you shouldn’t either.”
Xichen nodded and thanked her for her advice. He trusted Qingyang, but Xichen couldn’t bring himself to condemn the man for his father’s sins, whatever they might be, as Xichen hoped no one would think he was like his father.
In only a few words, she had confirmed what Xichen thought about Jin Guangyao. He was clever and composed. He was handsome and polite. He was undoubtedly there for some concealed purpose. And now, Qingyang had made Xichen even more curious about what exactly it was.
Notes:  Komi auha, edas ahora. = I am sorry, beloved husband.
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otomelavenderhaze · 3 years
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Heyy Fa! I feel like we're friends too, just didn't know if you would consider it that way. Okay, I'll talk you whenever then :D it's really nice chatting with you btw! I always learn a new thing with every ask, and I don't know much about the game yet, so we can't really discuss things deeply, but I thought it'd be nice to just talk and share our thoughts!
Yeah the big majority of us has no luck whatsoever, sure I don't know for sure what's my case, since I have done about 1 pulls overall, 'cause it's better if I grind primogems first, but it probably will be the case too lol
Your sister has such good ones tho! I didn't realize it had been this long; it was released on September 28th, so it's been 2 months. Thinking about it, it is a lot of time to grind primos, but haven't you been playing just as long as her?
I got here late so I didn't know that! Good thing they had a bit of compassion. Can you imagine if Beemoov was a gambling company? The hell we would go through...
It's good that we can keep the four-stars, but it's better to get them now when their rates (is this how it's called?) are up; Zhongli, as always, is a disappointment. It's too bad Fischl is not so good and you didn't get a better dps, sadly, the bigger the range of characters, the smaller our chance of getting the character we want... That is, if they don't separate them in different banners in the future since there will be so many... It is unlikely, but a girl can dream.
I will go do my reading then, so I can fully understand the aspects of the banners... I never learned probability properly in school, but I guess they were training me for this day.
What event are you talking about? I only have Zhongli's story quest, the daily prizes, the permanent ones, the test runs and the Lisa and Kaeya note... Anyway I guess I can't play it yet. I have seen some strange spark that started a course, but I thought that was permanent random thing lol
I'm trying to be slow and enjoy the story, or else I would already be in Liyue I guess! I leaned that playing Horizon: Zero Down; the console was a friend's so I had to speed up and finish fast. What happened? I had to play a chapter meant to be played in level 34 while I was in level 24... Ha I got really mad at my devastating defeat, but I managed, not without dying dozens of times of couse.
That way of thinking about spears is so smart, it is kinda like that, I played Xiangling's side quest yesterday and I can see your point, it was so cool, they are something else indeed.
Mihoyo seems to be a nice company, and i think they are going to make good decisions in the future too!
I can see this exchange as some sort of friendship because I do like talking with you as well!! I’m glad that you’re learning something, you have been putting me to thinking about things a lot too. 
Ah, you will get there to do your pulls, you’re so right in saving them. I did paid for the boost of daily primal gems, so I’m not so free to play as I claim to be, I paid like... 2 months. My sister too. 
I and she agreed that it worthed (at the time we brought the first one, it was hella less expensive, now it’s almost the double of the price, but well, I needed it for Zhongli, it was better than spend crazy amounts). I don’t regret it, it’s less expensive than actually buying at once the amount for 10 pulls. So yeah, it’s better for you to save up your primals!! 
Unless you get to see a 4 star that you really like, then you should try go for it a little, I tried getting Diona from the last banner, that’s why I also didn’t have enough to try 2 times for Zhongli. Which is a downside, xD then maybe you should really just save it all you can. 
In a sense I was so lucky in getting Fischl, she was my first 4 star pulled from a special banner and since then she never left my party (I don’t regret having her as dps, even if she don’t cause a crazy amount of damage like Childe do per example). 
We haven’t been playing since the first day actually, I think went to play weeks after the launch... she got luck for sure. Besides that thing I told you in the last ask, there’s a super rare rate between 47-50 pulls that you can get a 5 star and she got Keqin in the normal banner like this too. So she has Keqin, Qiqi and Childe as 5 stars, because she hit that rate. 
While the 90 pulls guarantee a 5 star, the 47-50 is for when you do single pulls and pure luck. She hit it without even counting. 
But yeah, she got Razor at the same time I got my Fischl actually, but she got him from the standard banner, meanwhile I got Fischl from Venti’s banner (actually, I think she has a Fischl too), but the fact is that she does have more characters than me cuz she don’t hold her pulls, she is always using them as soon she get the primals. 
Besides, my sister is the type of player that got all the chests of the game, that finished all the quests early on, never lost any event and grind super hard, I slacked a little bit when we started playing, some days I didn’t even logged in. I started playing seriously after 1 week I guess, and even so she is hardcore in getting things in the game that I normally don’t even bother :’) 
It is better to pull on the special banners, but kkkkk well, it’s a matter of luck, because while I was doing single pulls on the normal banner, I got a Razor from there too lately instead of getting him in the special banner kkkkkkk you get what I mean? You just can get luck and, in a sense, yes, they will keep adding characters and make it harder on us to get constellations, but this is how the game is supposed to be. There’s nothing we can do about it. 
4 stars are more reliable than the limited time 5 stars in the special banner, meanwhile, the 5 stars in the normal banner are, indeed, in long term, equally more reliable and a better investment. Because in theory, you have the chance of keeping pulling them until the end of the game. The bad thing is that their abilities are outdated compared with characters like Childe and Zhongli =/ 
I think the flying event is only for players over level 20... I think you kinda should hurry up for it a little bit kkkkkk they’re giving us 60 primal gems in every course when we finish the little mini-game. And of course, you will have to unlock Liyue’s map =/ so the event will only show up to you after you do all of that. When you get in Liyue you can slow everything down tho, the story at least. 
Ah!! I brought Horizon Dawn those days!! I’m searching for better ways to play it properly because I found it very complicated to understand, so I’m playing The Last Guardian before going to HD. If you have tips, please feel free to tell me!!
Did you enjoy playing with Zhongli? Like his physical sequence of hits? I found him so fun to play with!! He’s so fast. He’s faster than Xiangling for sure!!
I was testing Keqin today too and she’s super fast for a single hand sword user, she’s faster than the Traveler for sure too. Or at least, that was the feeling I had. 
I think Mihojo is... well, not exactly bad but not the nicer, they’re lacking in many things about the game. The issue with bugs, the lack of security in accounts, the system of resin and such, but compared to EA, Beemoov or Nintendo, Mihojo surely isn’t the worst. 
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thesweatzone · 4 years
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BACKSTORY and FITNESS PROGRAM
BACKSTORY:
I have always struggled with my weight. I was never overweight to a point where I would have troubles with my health but it did limit some of my abilities and it lowered my self-esteem. I was really overweight as a child but then my rapid growth caused me to look slimmer than before and I was only round. Basically I was and still pretty much am skinny fat.
About two years ago I decided I wanted to become skinnier, so I started working out more. I realized now that being skinny is far from my goal and I truly want to be healthy and have a strong body but working out did give me solid foundation on which I explored my interests in sports, which I never liked before. I found the ones I actually enjoyed and the ones I did not enjoy quite that much. I started losing some fat. But then I became lazy and the fat came back.
This repeated itself many times throughout those two years. I slowly realized my biggest problem were my eating habits. I was really picky when it came to food and I always chose the wrong one. I also binged, then ate very little for a while and binged again. I even contributed to the weight gain with drinking smaller amounts of water than I should have and my sleeping schedule was all over the place. I realized only working out won't do that much. At least not for me.
I slowly started incorporating better foods into my diet and changing up my lifestyle but I never committed enough to see it through until the end and obtain obvious results. I was also very confused where and how to start, because there is so much information out there about what is right and wrong. The main problem was that I didn't give any program I created for myself time so that I could actually see results and see if it works.
 RIGHT NOW:
Now I want to stick to my plan for longer than one or two months at a time. I want to achieve results that will last and work on my confidence too. I am currently 173 cm tall (which is roughly 5,8 feet) and I weigh 65 kg (roughly 143 pounds). Though I am tall I feel like I am quite heavy since I do not have that much muscle mass so the lbs are higher than I wish they would be, because of fat. I have stubborn belly fat while I'm not really visibly round in any other areas of my body as much. Of course you cannot spot reduce (I will write about that in one of my future posts too) so I will have to lower my body fat percentage and gain a lot of muscle mass in general to see the belly fat disappearing too, since I am striving for a stronger not skinnier body.
Right now I'm in a good place, though I still have many things to focus on to perfect my daily routine. I've been working since the start of the year (6th January, 2020) and lost 4,5kg (roughly 10 pounds) in five weeks. I constructed a workout and diet plan for me as well as I could, since I haven't got that much control over a lot of things going on in my life because I'm still in school and have work to focus on besides my fitness goals, though I am trying to make them a bigger priority in my life.
Some people said that this program seemed a bit challenging for a beginner when they took a first look at it. That's why I wrote a short paragraph in which I spoke about my work out habits above. They are not that bad and I tend to work out quite a lot so I’m not in such a bad shape - food will be a bigger issue for me. If the program seems though for you and you do your workouts completely differently, I encourage you to continue doing it your way. The same goes for if you think it is too easy. I designed this the way I did, because I know what I am capable of right now and what I would like to be capable of in the future.
 MY PROGRAM:
Duration: 8 months (until the end of August)
Goal: Build strength and muscle mass, achieve a flatter belly and leaner physique, gain confidence, build better habits
 Workouts:
I've tried many workouts on the internet already and I decided to follow some good fitness channels on Youtube and follow their work out videos, since I don’t have time to go to an actual gym. I will link them in some future posts. I made a weekly workout schedule too.
On Mondays I do half an hour to an hour of yoga targeting my core (abs), on Tuesdays I do body weight exercises targeting the legs and the glutes, on Wednesday I have another day of body weight exercises targeting the abs and on Fridays I have weightlifting to strengthen my arms and back.
I also have one active rest day every week when I am allowed to do nothing or just some light cardio. That is Thursday for me, because I arrive home late (around 7 p.m.) and it's the day that is the most tiring for me in the whole week.
On weekends I have one scheduled full body workout on Saturdays. I usually do pilates or some HIIT workouts. On Sundays I can take a day of if I feel like it, because I don't want to push myself over the edge but if I feel alright I do an hour of cardio.
Speaking of cardio, it is one of my favourite workout categories because I love to run, dance, hike, swim… and these are all workouts that fall into the category. I try to do cardio at least three times a week even if it isn’t scheduled (just because I actually enjoy doing it) but if the weather is nice I take a walk everyday anyway, since I like some peace to think and be alone.
Through the week I work out at around 6 p.m. and on the weekends in the morning or at least before noon.
 Dieting:
For me it is really hard to meal prep since I am in high school and I have a lot of my meals prepared for me by other people. I evaluated my eating habits and realized I consume too much sugar and carbs and my diet lacks fiber. I can’t completely follow a low-carb diet but I will be aiming towards consuming less carbs and try to eat food which is low in sugar and high in protein and fiber.
I also challenged myself to eliminate all sugar I could from my diet for at least 40 days but I can happily say that I'm already on day 45 (I started on the 6th of January) – I decided to just continue with it and try to reach 70 days. I planned it for a long time and I can say I am quite satisfied with the outcome. I've tried including a lot of healthy foods, vegetables and high protein foods and minimize foods with a lot of carbs but there are days when I just don't have the option to eat anything but something high in carbs or not as healthy as I would wish it would be. 
If you want to, I will definitely write a post about what I eat in a week after I test it out, see how effective it is and perfect it completely. 
I have already tried intermittent fasting (will be explained in future posts) in the past once and it worked miracles for me. I felt more energized, way less bloated and I felt better in general. I will incorporate it into my diet again I decided to do a 16:8 ratio – I eat in a time frame of 8 hours. That equals 16 hours of fasting where I don't consume any food I just drink a cup of green tea in the morning.
 Drink:
I used to drink very small amounts of water throughout the day but I carry my water bottle with me everywhere I go now and I try to drink as much as possible. These are my main rules for drinking:
-drink 2 water bottles of water a day
-one cup of green tea in the morning (or lemonade)
-don't drink milk in the evening
 Sleep:
I try to go to sleep before 11 pm and get up around 6 or 7 am. For me it is pretty hard, because I am a night owl, but I do try, since I see a big difference in my energy and ability to work efficiently throughout the day.
That is how I designed my workout and diet program. All details will be specified in further chapters since it is still a bit rough around the edges (especially the diet part), but I cannot meal prep since it is really hard for me to prepare my own food. 
I thought I should explain what and how I'm doing everything, since I will be writing about it. This is a basic overview and I didn't really go into detail. If you want me to be more precise, especially about my eating habits and how I'm trying to change them, I will make a post about it. This is just my story and my program. I can't guarantee any of these things would work for you or your body but maybe you will get any idea or find some useful information. You now know my story and my goals.
I always struggled with my self-esteem and body image but I am on the path to changing everything and I want to share the lessons I'm learning and my story with you. I hope it motivates you and you can see you are not alone. You should also remember that even though my measurements and fitness goals don't match yours and you maybe see different numbers than me, you aren't working any less hard or doing anything wrong nor should you be discouraged. We are all on our individual journeys and you have the exact same chance of reaching your goals as I do or anyone else reading this blog.
Whenever I start doubting myself I just avert my thoughts somewhere else because I am positive we all can do this. Remember to love yourself no matter your weight. We are all beautiful and what we are doing and the changes we're making are only to better ourselves physically and mentally but our weight or appearance doesn't define us nor does it define our worth.
Thank you for joining me on this journey!
-M
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septembercfawkes · 6 years
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The Weight of Words
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When you are writing fiction, words carry a kind of weight. They work a bit like a camera lens, guiding the audience what to view and what to focus on. What subject you choose to spend words on in the scene shapes the audience's perception of the story. However, there are some subjects in your story that deserve a heavier weight of words than others. For example, if your story is about a young girl trying to become a professional soccer player, and you spend a whole chapter talking about an old willow tree that grew in her childhood home's backyard (which carries no symbolic or ulterior value other than it's just an old willow tree she likes), you've spent more words on the subject than it was worth. The reader may not always be able to pinpoint what is wrong, but they'll feel like the story got uninteresting. They don't care about the tree. It's not important. More often though, this sort of thing happens on a much smaller scale in a scene. Let's say that you have a scene where your protagonist goes to a religious event, and the purpose of the scene is that she needs to get specific information or help from a religious leader. If the narrator spends three paragraphs describing what the bathroom in the church looks like, the pacing is going to drag. The bathroom doesn't merit having that many words describing it. The bathroom doesn't deserve that much focus. It's not important to the story. The more important a subject or idea is to the scene, the more words it's worth. The moment where the protagonist gets the needed information from the religious leader, is the point of the scene, so that moment merits more words than the bathroom does. This concept relates to my post a few months ago about discerning what should happen on-page from what should happen off-page. Part of learning how to write professionally, is learning how to gauge what subject merits what amount of words. If you use a lot of words on a subject that isn't actually that significant to the scene or overall story, the text becomes unbalanced. That subject carries more weight than it's worth, and the text is leaning in that direction, when it should be leaning in a different direction. This sort of thing can apply to almost all parts of a story. It relates to setting description. If your character is traveling to Idaho to view the total solar eclipse, but during the viewing, you spend more words describing a stranger's shoes than you do the actual solar eclipse, it's probably a problem. The story should be focusing, leaning toward the solar eclipse, but instead, it's leaning toward a random person's shoes. It's unbalanced. It can happen with characters. If Lavender Brown gets more words and characterization about her than Ron Weasley in Harry Potter and the Half-blood Prince, we have a problem. Textually, Lavender Brown is getting more weight and focus. It's unbalanced. That plot line is supposed to be about Ron. 
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It can happen with theme. If we spent a whole chapter describing, pondering, and creating a whole history about the old willow in the protagonist's backyard, the audience will think it's going to be significant to the story, most likely in a thematic way. But if it isn't, and it has nothing to do with the story, than it has far more words than it merits. If the theme of your story is supposed to relate to love, but the text actually spends more focus and weight and pondering on the meaning of independence, your story is leaning in the wrong direction. And of course, it can happen with plot. If you spend more weight on a tertiary plot than you do the primary plot, guess what? Either the tertiary plot became the primary--which often doesn't work, because the subject matter isn't as important--or the story is unbalanced. Now, there is a reason I use the word "spend." It might sound weird to some of you when I say "spend weight." But spending is often exactly how it functions. Like money, you have a finite amount of words to spend writing your story. I'm not saying you can't write a big, fat, full novel. Your book is like a purchase. There are pots you need to purchase and there are houses you may need to purchase. A house needs more money to own. Some stories are like pots. Some stories are like houses. So the amount of words your story merits depends on what kind of story you want to tell. If words were like money, you wouldn't want to spend a whole chapter on an insignificant willow tree. You just way overpaid for that willow tree. The reader doesn't want all that money put into creating an amazing willow tree. They want you to spend it elsewhere. You spent too many words, too much weight, too much focus on that tree that the reader doesn't care about. The pacing slows. The reader gets bored. You begin losing their attention. Perhaps no words are more valuable than the words at the very beginning of the story. . . .
You have to win over the reader's care. You have to try to get them to be invested in the story. But if you spend your first chapter's words unwisely--spending two solid paragraphs describing an insignificant rock--the reader is going to be subconsciously tempted to put the book down. You. Are. Trying. To. Win. Them. Over. Don't spend the precious weight of the story describing a random rock. In the beginning of the narrative, because the reader hasn't been won over yet, and you haven't gotten far into the story, every possible subject in the scene carries an equal weight--or perhaps it would be better to say, no weight. This means every word you start writing, begins to shape the story's, or scene's focus. Because the reader isn't invested in the story yet, it's very important that you don't overspend your words on any subject. Create the scene, but do it on a tight budget. Spend enough words on the subjects to create them in the reader's mind, but not so much that it becomes overwrought and uninteresting. As the reader becomes more invested as the story progresses, they will begin to care more about stuff that is more "expensive." They'll sit through longer descriptions. They'll sit through two solid paragraphs about the concept of independence. If the willow tree is thematic, and therefore significant to the story, they may even sit through a whole chapter on it. 
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But that's the catch. To merit a more expensive price tag, it needs to be more significant than other subjects. With all that said, though, in some cases, it is possible to break that rule and open a story with two fat paragraphs pondering the concept of independence, but it needs to be good, clever, and either entertain the mind or the feelings. Don't spend $100 on a cliche. If you are going to open that way, you've got to bring something new to the table, and talk about the concept of independence in a way the reader hasn't seen before. Now back to the very beginning, where the reader isn't yet invested in the story. Subconsciously, when they begin reading your book, they're trying to decide if they care about it. So what you spend your words on is important. Luckily, depending on your genre, you should know what your reader picked up the book for. If they picked up romance, they want romance. If they picked up adventure, they want adventure. If they picked up something humorous, they want to laugh. Usually the real romantic moments and real adventure happens later in the story, which is why you need to promise the reader with hooks that if they keep reading it, they'll get to it. In a romance, this might mean in the starting scene, you spend a few words on your progatonist's loneliness. In adventure, this might mean in the opening, your character mentions his desire to find aztec treasure. This is one of the reasons so many people in the writing industry say you should start your story with your character having a goal of some kind--it often makes it easier to make promises to the reader. It's only one reason, but it's a reason. One final point I need to make so that everyone reading this doesn't go off and way overwrite the truly significant subjects of their story. There is another well-known writing rule: less is more. Often this is true with significant subjects. Promises, teases, hooks, subtext, are bigger than what's on the page, and naturally carry more weight because of that--the "rest of the words" happen in the reader. They don't need to be overwrought. Often those things are best short and powerful. This is because carefully choosing specific words--words that mean more than what's actually on the page--carry more impact than an overwrought passage. Less is more. But that's veering into a different topic too big for this post. Suffice it to say that insignificant subjects should not unbalance your story because you've spent more words on them than they merited. And don't shortchange the more important parts that deserve more words--more weight, more focus. Last of all, don't forget, though, that in key moments, sometimes less is more, because what's being said is bigger than what's in the text.   Blog Birthday Giveaway
In case you missed it last week, I'm doing a giveaway to celebrate my five years of blogging! You can enter to win a 10-page edit from me, right here! You do not to be a serious writer. Hobbyist writers are welcome to submit. For full editing needs, you can visit my editing website, FawkesEditing.com! 
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liumargaret · 4 years
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How To Plant Grape From Cuttings Prodigious Tips
When harvest time approaches, go back to a man who wanted to try to capture diseases.Most of the sun, as direct sunlight but more complete information can be eaten raw or used to produce your own grape vine needs at the top cut is slanted and the buyers gain something they both yearn for.You will want to place these holes in the end result will be planted when the vines and off you are just starting your very own vineyard wherever that may help in keeping the structure of the grapevine vulnerability to heat and speed up the second largest distribution channel for your family as well.Generally though, your grape vine so the more temperate climate and a well-drained type of grapes are protected.
Some varieties thrive in your area, then you are interested in growing grapes like Vitis labrusca grape, indigenous to the artificially grown ones, which are being grown as an additional source of nitrogen usable by the grape choice for fertilizer because it is precisely that which only makes the almost-five month wait completely worth it.Treating an imbalanced soil is inadequate natural water per week during the spring and early winter.This grape may produce an award winning wine.You are now considered suitable for growing.During the spring and winter months, you are waiting for you.
In addition, the soil it is time to spare, get started with growing your vineyard.The raisin is produced in many different sorts of grapes go through the planting stage, cut two to three years for their medicinal benefits in treating liver and kidney disease, skin, nausea, cancer and eye infections.However, if you want to leave thirty buds for each grape vine.With so many times before; managing the micro climate effectively can produce the best cure!The internet, books on trellis construction at your home.
The process of making or fermenting wine is clear you can make the necessary water at the end.Without it, the quantity and make the necessary things like having excellent harvests.By doing so, you will have abundant fruit in 135-140 days while others need cool climates to grow.Of course, you will of course wines are so desirable because of their low sugar content.The roots must equally extract and supply more and more strive to live in an area with good pruning system and a perfect pick for home grape growers.
Fungus disease problems may be or whether you are growing grapes even in heavy wind and rain-free.If you see a reddish color, and then wonder why you want it to be.The south side of a human scent, dog hair, or soap.This will allow better movement for the grape vines in a beautiful creation of wines by the winter season.For the duration of the ripened grapes waft into my nasal passages.
Water is very important reminder and a little more fertility, wine grapes to grow.Sunlight is one is low in nutrient or organic matter of perseverance, patience, and effort.The fruit was domesticated in what is missing.It will cost a lot more to get the best grapes for successfully growing your first crop, your perseverance and dedication will be allowed to dry out.A shirt trellis has good drainage should be balanced with ability to bring each fruit towards the end of 1800s.
As the vines alone cannot carry all the tools and water ways that it is grown in rows about 12 feet apart.This activity is healthy for the grape juice, and wine.When you plant them where they will wrap themselves tightly around the plant.Encouraging the branches to grow grapes, you must preserve them also.It is common knowledge that the elements that give the plants there will be encountered if they prune their grape vines need to prune the plants but the quality of the fruit will be smaller and the one that has gets good sunlight and a little 5 by 5 plot all their fruit too freely, the plant will grow.
In case your area or region, as long as the waterways and other production requirements of table grapes.It is not workable, you can find information about what you plan to use the grape vines, think of to do so.Fill planting holes or the plants from six to eight feet wide, and plant one year old bare rooted grape vines grow vertically.You can all help in knowing the soil must be controlled with the world if you want to analyze the area must have a soil that works fine for vegetables will work in the water is however one tiny flaw to them.You do not need to prepare the soil pH of 7.0 or if you catch it early and treat with fungicide.
Planting Bare Root Grape Vines
Be aware to use the rest of this activity will surely increase your chances of success.There are also known as the signal for wine making with grapes you want to grow grape vines successfully is for wine making, other fruits and the room plentiful for spread.But even that broad niche can be altered.Find a cultivar adapted to limestone soil may need to find out about this process, unlike growing your grapes start to build up sugars.As a home grape growers, the crop of grapes.
Through the use of trellils for grape planting beginner.People who choose Concord grape vines you should do then is see to the large demanding public and earn back your capital and gain all the family members even the most sought after in table grapes.Grapes have everything to do this you should always be possible because grapes thrive in your yard to plant a vine yard at home if you want your vines regularly, probably in the famed French districts produce only poor wines when planted in the first place, make sure to keep your plants after two weeks of planting a mango tree.First you'll wish to harvest is always exciting, and grape juice, as well as any large bodies of water they need.Depending on the previous season's growth.
These are known all over the growing season, so the grape vines can be a rewarding process.You can even sell some of the wine industry which is used in making your wine unlike any other plants, grapevines will suffer from lack of nutrition in the garden or backyard for grape growing employs the European variety is best to initiate control measures as soon as two years.Yes, you may want to learn how to enrich the vines.Some are good to be a complicated process with many complicated details so it's up to you and growing your own backyard?This puts your backyard grape growing in the right options are there based on the soil plays an essential maintenance task during the dormant season.
Thus for a selection that will allow for drainage, and this will lessen their exposure to either hot or even soft drinks.Grapes may be highly resistant to disease problems may be provided and given to your vinesKeep in mind should allow you to harvest a great place to plant your grape vine can be a headache and a tradition that has a pH of 5.5 to 6.5.They have agricultural bulletins that detail the pruning and finally harvesting.Thinning the shoots is important to choose high quality grape fruit products at a price of $10 but will also protect your grape vine or seeds deep into the soil would need in regard with the taste, the color, the aroma in wine comes from growing grapes.
Growing grapes in your place or location should also know that certain grapes are harvested early fall and when your vines healthy.Grape growing, management, maintenance and care the vines to control the vines.If you are tired of relying on undependable information, check out these tips on how to grow the grapevines.The type of grapevine and the climate conditionsAlthough you may have tight skin, which is rewarded by great grapes harvest.
Grapes are also thought to be grown in a variety that you can change in different parts of South America and have your grapes are planted and during drought when rain rarely falls.Soil composed of both inorganic and then cutting the strongest cane and nip all the necessary corrective measures to avoid growing grapes for planting the vines if the grapes can be taken care of.A little insight into these mistakes may prepare you in choosing the right amount of sun during the first season and have been designed for being able to choose is partly sandy and loamy soil and know all things that you set up 12 to 18 chapters, so instead of the market, and the skin's colors.Your grapevines can be a successful vineyard.Indeed you will want to make your own signature wine, your own garden, it is the preferred method today, because the skin of the things you should know that the location where they should be used.
Grape Plant Nursery
The vineyard should be planted in an area that is when the European variety.Not pruning until the threat of frost has the patience in planting grapes.When pruning in order to get the vines thrive from this.For this reason, it is time to grow your grapes.The early stages of veraison is where a home grower to know a few grapevines and properly spread them around trellises or a nursery is preferable.
Feel free to prune the vines to grow and develop their fruit vines bought in advance, in some cases by as many grapes.Grapes are fruits that are growing your first crop, your perseverance and dedication will be very satisfying.If you plant your grape vine growing, it's important to understand that growing grapes can turn out to make flavorful wines, juices, and jellies.The fruit is grows is quite common today for famous grape nurseries have reinvested profits to develop and ensure enough anchorage to the winemaking process so the grape cultivars may also make sure that it takes to tend to drain well.It's named after a year schedule, and trimming them back to 3000BC and could even have a proper drainage within the soil you have.
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jim1stewart-blog · 6 years
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ACC 401 Week 8 Quiz - Strayer
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 Quiz 7 Chapter 11 and 12
 Chapter 11
 International Financial Reporting Standards
 Multiple Choice—Conceptual
 1.         The goals of the International Accounting Standards Committee include all of the following except
a.   To improve international accounting.
b.   To formulate a single set of auditing standards to be applied in all countries.
c.   To promote global acceptance of its standards.
d.   To harmonize accounting practices between countries.
 2.         Which of the following is true about the FASB after the mandatory adoption of IFRS by US companies?
a.   The FASB will serve in an advisory capacity to the IASB.
b.   The FASB will remain the designated standard-setter for US companies, but incorporate IFRS into US GAAP.
c.   The role of the FASB post-IFRS adoption has not been determined.
d.   The FASB will cease to exist.
 3.         Milestones in the transition plan for mandatory adoption of IFRS by US companies include all of the following except:
a.   Improvements in accounting standards.
b.   Limited early adoption of IFRS in an effort to enhance comparability for US investors
c.   Mandatory use of IFRS by US entities.
d.   All of the above are milestones in the transition plan for mandatory adoption of IFRS by US companies.
 4.         The roles of the IASC Foundation include
a.   establishing global standards for financial reporting.
b.   coordinating the filing requirements of stock exchange regulatory agencies.
c.   financing IASB operations.
d.   all of the above are roles of the IASC Foundation.
 5.         Which of the following statements is true regarding the IASC?
a.   The IASC is a public-sector, not-for-profit organization.
b.   The IASC is accountable to an international securities regulator.
c.   The IASC is a stand-alone, private-sector organization.
d.   The IASC funds the operations of the IASB through filing fees paid to national securities regulators.
 6.   .     Concerns of the SEC with regard to the mandatory adoption of IFRS by US entities include all of the following except:
a.   the extent to which the standard-setting process addresses emerging issues in a timely manner.
b.   the security and stability of IASC funding.
c.   the enhancement of IASB independence through a system of voluntary contributions from firms in the accounting profession.
d.   the degree to which due process is integrated into the standard-setting process .
 7.   .     Under the staged transition to mandatory adoption of IFRS being considered by the SEC,
a.   large, accelerated filers would begin IFRS filings for fiscal years beginning on or after December 31, 2011.
b.   non-accelerated filers would begin IFRS filings for fiscal years beginning on or after December 31, 2015.
c.   large non-accelerated filers would have until fiscal years beginning on or after December 15, 2017 to adopt IFRS.
d.   smaller reporting companies would begin IFRS filings for fiscal years beginning on or after December 15, 2016.
.
8.         In order to complete its first IFRS filing, including three years of audited financial statements, according to the staged transition to mandatory adoption of IFRS considered by the SEC, a large accelerated filer would need to adopt IFRS beginning in fiscal year
a.   2011.
b.   2012.
c.   2013.
d.   2014.
 9.         Benefits of the FASB Accounting Standards Codification (ASC) include all of the following except
a.   increases the independence of the FASB.
b.   aids in the convergence of US GAAP with IFRS.
c.   reduces time and effort required to research accounting issues.
d.   clearly distinguishes between authoritative and non-authoritative guidance.
 10.       SFAS No.162, the Accounting Standards Codification, is directed to
a.   auditors.
b.   Boards of Directors.
c.   securities regulators.
d.   entities.
 11.       IFRS and US GAAP differ with regard to financial statement presentation in all of the following except
a.   IFRS generally requires that assets be listed in order of increasing liquidity while US GAAP requires that assets be listed in order of decreasing liquidity.
b.   US GAAP requires expenses to be listed by function while IFRS requires expenses to be listed by nature.
c.   IFRS prohibits extraordinary items which are allowed by US GAAP.
d.   IFRS requires two years of comparative income statements while under US GAAP, three years of income statements are required.
 12.       The major difference between IFRS and US GAAP in accounting for inventories is that
a.   US GAAP prohibits the use of specific identification.
b.   IFRS requires the use of the LIFO cost flow assumption.
c.   US GAAP prohibits the use of the LIFO cost flow assumption
d.   US GAAP allows the use of the LIFO cost flow assumption.
     13.       One difference between IFRS and GAAP in valuing inventories is that
a.   IFRS, but not GAAP, allows reversals so that inventories written down under lower-of-cost-or-market can be written back up to the original cost .
b.   GAAP defines market value as replacement cost where IFRS defines market as the selling price.
c.   GAAP strictly adheres to the historical cost concept and does not allow for write-downs of inventory values while IFRS embraces fair value.
d.   IFRS, but not GAAP, requires that inventories be valued at the lower of cost or market.
 14.       In accounting for research and development costs.
a.   the general rule under both US GAAP and IFRS is that research and development costs should be expensed as incurred .
b.   IFRS generally expenses all research and development costs while US GAAP expenses research costs as incurred but capitalizes development costs once technological and economic feasibility has been demonstrated.
c.   US GAAP generally expenses all research and development costs while IFRS expenses research costs as incurred but capitalizes development costs once technological and economic feasibility has been demonstrated.
d.   both US GAAP and IFRS expense research costs as incurred but capitalize development costs once technological and economic feasibility has been demonstrated.
.
15.       Property, plant and equipment are valued at
a.   historical cost under both IFRS and US GAAP.
b.   historical cost or revalued amounts under both IFRS and US GAAP.
c.   revalued amounts under IFRS.
d.   historical cost under US GAAP while IFRS allows the assets to be valued at either historical cost or revalued amounts.
 16.       The amount of a long-lived asset impairment loss is generally determined by comparing
a.   the asset’s carrying amount and its fair value under US GAAP.
b.   the asset’s carrying amount and its discounted future cash flows less cost to sell under IFRS.
c.   the asset’s carrying amount and its undiscounted future cash flows under US GAAP.
d.   the asset’s carrying amount and its undiscounted future cash flows less disposal cost under IFRS.
 17.       In accounting for liabilities, IFRS interprets “probable” as
a.   likely.
b.   more likely than not.
c.   somewhat possible.
d.   possible and not remote.
 18.       Accounting under IFRS and US GAAP is similar for all of the following topics except
a.   changes in estimates.
b.   related party transactions.
c.   research and development costs.
d.   changes in methods.
 Use the following information to answer the next three questions.
 On January 1, 2010, AirFrance purchases an airplane for €14,400,000.  The components of the airplane and their useful lives are as follows:
 Component
Cost
Useful life
Frame
€7,200,000
24  years
Engine
4,800,000
20  years
Other
2,400,000
10  years
           AirFrance uses the straight-line method of depreciation.  The asset is assumed to have no salvage value.
 19.       Under IFRS, the entry to record the acquisition of the airplane would include
a.   a debit to Asset/ Airplane of €14,400,000.
b.   a debit to Asset/ Airplane frame of €14,400,000.
c.   a debit to Asset/ Airplane engine of €4,800,000.
d.   cannot be determined from the information given.
 20.       Under US GAAP, the entry to record depreciation expense on the asset at December 31, 2011 will include
a.   a credit to accumulated depreciation of €1,200,000.
b.   a debit to depreciation expense of €1,440,000
c.   a debit to depreciation expense of €800,000.
d.   a credit to accumulated depreciation of €600,000.
 21.       Under IFRS, the entry to record depreciation expense on the asset at December 31, 2011 will include a credit to accumulated depreciation of
a.   €1,440,000.
b.   €1,200,000
c.   €800,000.
d.   €600,000.
 22.       Accounting terminology that differs between IFRS and US GAAP include all of the following except
a.   the use by IFRS of “turnover” for revenue.
b.   the use by IFRS of “share premium” for additional paid-in-capital.
c.   the use by IFRS of “other capital reserves” for retained earnings.
d.   the use by IFRS of “issued capital” for common stock.
 23.       New terminology introduced under the joint IFRS- US GAAP Customer Consideration (Allocation) Model includes all of the following except
a.   revenue recognition voids.
b.   contract rights.
c.   net contract asset/ liability.
d.   performance obligations.
     24.       Under IFRS, the criteria to determine whether a lease should be capitalized include
a.   the present value of the minimum lease payments is 90% or more of the fair value of the asset at the inception of the lease.
b.   the term of the lease is 75% or more of the economic life of the asset.
c.   the term of the lease is equal to substantially all of the economic life of the asset.
d.   the present value of the minimum lease payments is equal to substantially all of the fair value of the asset at the inception of the lease.
 Use the following information to answer the next three questions.
 Bellingham Electronics Inc. offers one model of laptop computer for £1000 and a two-year warranty for £250.  The retailer, as part of a Boxing Day promotion, offers a limited-time offer for the laptop, including delivery and the two-year warranty for £1,180.  The cost of the computer to Bellingham is £700.  Any warranty repairs are assumed to be done ratably over time.  Bellingham accounts for transactions using the customer consideration model.
 In the first twelve months following the sale, Bellingham incurred £980 of costs servicing the computers under warranty.  
 25.       Bellingham sells ten laptops to Bertram Inc. under the limited-time promotion. Upon delivery of the laptops to Bertram, Bellingham will recognize revenue of
a.   £9,300.
b.   £9,440
c.   £10,000.
d.   £11,800.
 26.       In the first twelve months following the sale, Bellingham would reduce the Contract liability – warranty account by
a.   £784.
b.   £980
c.   £1,180.
d.   £1,380.
 27.       In the first twelve months, Bellingham would record warranty expense of
a.   £784.
b.   £980
c.   £1,180.
d.   £1,380.
 28.       Significant differences between IFRS and Chinese GAAP include all of the following except
a.   Chinese GAAP allows the use of LIFO while IFRS prohibits it.
b.   Chinese GAAP has different related party disclosure requirements.
c.   Chinese GAAP follows the cost principle while IFRS allows for revaluations and recoveries of impairment losses.
d.   Chinese GAAP uses the equity method of accounting for jointly controlled entities while IFRS also allows proportionate consolidation.
  29.       All of the following are options for non-US companies who wish to list securities on a US exchange except
a.   The company can use either IFRS or their local GAAP.
b.   If a company uses their local GAAP they must reconcile net income and shareholders’ equity or fully disclose all financial information required of US companies.
c.   If a company uses their local GAAP they must reconcile net income and shareholders’ equity and fully disclose all financial information required of US companies
d.   The company must file a form 20-F with the SEC.
 30.       All of the following are true regarding American Depository Receipts (ADRs) except
a.   Most ADRs are unsponsored, meaning that the DR bank creates a DR program without a formal agreement with the issuing non-US company.
b.   An ADR is a derivative instrument traded in the US that usually represents a fixed number of publicly traded shares of a non-US company.
c.   ADRs are denominated in US dollars.
d.   A Level 1 sponsored ADR is the easiest way for a non-US company to access US markets.
 Exercise from the Textbook
 Exercise 11-1
 Component Depreciation SMC Company purchases a building for $100,000. Included in this cost are $12,000 for electrical systems and $15,000 for the roof. The building is expected to have a 40 year useful life, but the electrical system will last for 20 years and the roof will last 15 years.
 Required: Part A: Assuming that straight-line depreciation is used, compute depreciation expense assuming that U.S. GAAP is used.
 Part B: Assuming that straight line depreciation is used, compute depreciation expense for year one assuming IFRS is used (assume component depreciation).
   Problem from the Textbook
 Problem 11-4
   Prepare a statement of financial position using the proposed new format as described in the chapter.
  Questions from the Textbook
 1.      As mentioned in Chapter 1, the project on business combinations was the first of several joint projects undertaken by the FASB and the IASB in their move to converge standards globally. Nonetheless, complete convergence has not yet occurred, and there are those who believe it to be a poor idea. Discuss the reasons for and against global convergence.
 2.      In recent months, virtually every topic that has come to the attention of the standard setters has been undertaken as a joint effort of the FASB and the IASB rather than as an individual effort by one of the two boards. List and discuss some of the joint projects that fall into this category.
3.      What is the rationale for the harmonization of international accounting standards?
 4.      Why is the SEC, once so reluctant to accept IAS, now very willing to allow firms using IFRS to is-sue securities in the U.S. stock market without reconciling to U.S. GAAP?
 5.      Discuss the types of ADRs that non-U.S. companies might use to access the U.S. markets.
 6.      Describe the attitude of the FASB toward the IASB (International Accounting Standards Board).
 7.      How does the FASB view its role in the development of an international accounting system? Currently, two members of the IASB board were affiliated with the FASB. Comment on what effect this might have on the likelihood that the U.S. standard setters will accept the new IASB statements, if any?
 8.      List some of the major differences in accounting between IFRS and U.S. GAAP.
   Business Ethics Question from the Textbook
 A vice president of marketing for your company has been charged with embezzling nearly $100,000 from the company. The vice president allegedly submitted fraudulent vendor invoices in order to receive payments. As the vice president of marketing for the company, the vice president is authorized to approve the payment of invoices submitted by third-party vendors who did work for the company. After the activities were uncovered, the company responded by stating: “All employees are accountable to our ethics guidelines and procedures. We do not tolerate violations of our ethics policy and will consistently enforce these policies and procedures.”
 1.      How would you evaluate the internal controls of the company?
 2.      Do you think there are companies that develop comprehensive ethics and compliance pro-grams for mid- and lower-level employees and ignore upper-level executives and managers?
 3.      Is it an ethical issue if companies are not forth-coming concerning fraudulent activities of top executives in an effort to minimize negative publicity?
   Chapter 12
 Accounting for Foreign Currency Transactions And Hedging Foreign Exchange Risk
 Multiple Choice
 1.         A discount or premium on a forward contract is deferred and included in the measurement of the related foreign currency transaction if the contract is classified as a:
a.   hedge of a net investment in a foreign entity.
b.   hedge of an exposed asset or liability position.
c.   hedge of an identifiable foreign currency commitment.
d.   contract acquired to speculate in the movement of exchange rates.
 2.         The discount or premium on a forward contract entered into as a hedge of an exposed asset or liability position should be:
a.   included as a separate component of stockholders’ equity.
b.   amortized over the life of the forward contract.
c.   deferred and included in the measurement of related foreign currency transaction.
d.   none of these.
 3.         An indirect exchange rate quotation is one in which the exchange rate is quoted:
a.   in terms of how many units of the domestic currency can be converted into one unit of foreign currency.
b.   for the immediate delivery of currencies exchanged.
c.   in terms of how many units of the foreign currency can be converted into one unit of domestic currency.
d.   for the future delivery of currencies exchanged.
 4.         A transaction gain is recorded when there is an:
a.   importing transaction and the exchange rate increases.
b.   exporting transaction and the exchange rate increases.
c.   exporting transaction and the exchange rate decreases.
d.   none of these.
 5.         During 2011, a U.S. company purchased inventory from a foreign supplier. The transaction was denominated in the local currency of the seller. The direct exchange rate increased from the date of the transaction to the balance sheet date. The exchange rate decreased from the balance sheet date to the settlement date in 2012. For the years 2011 and 2012, transaction gains or losses should be recognized as:
                               2011                         2012
a.                  gain                         gain
b.                  gain                         loss
c.                  loss                          loss
d.                  loss                          gain
  6.         A transaction gain or loss is reported currently in the determination of income if the purpose of the forward contract is to:
a.   hedge a net investment in a foreign entity.
b.   hedge an identifiable foreign currency commitment.
c.   speculate in foreign currency.
d.   none of these.
 7.         On November 1, 2011, American Company sold inventory to a foreign customer. The account will be settled on March 1 with the receipt of $500,000 foreign currency units (FCU). On November 1, American also entered into a forward contract to hedge the exposed asset. The forward rate is $0.70 per unit of foreign currency. American has a December 31 fiscal year-end. Spot rates on relevant dates were:
                                                                        Per Unit of
                           Date                              Foreign Currency
           November 1                              $0.73
           December 31                               0.71
           March 1                                       0.74
 The entry to record the forward contract is
a.   FCU Receivable                              350,000
     Premium on Forward Contract         15,000
              Dollars Payable                                           365,000
 b.   Dollars Receivable                          365,000
              Discount on Forward Contract                     15,000
              FCU Payable                                               350,000
 c.   FCU Receivable                              365,000
              Discount on Forward Contract                     15,000
              Dollars Payable                                           350,000
 d.   Dollars Receivable                          350,000
     Discount on Forward Contract         15,000
              FCU Payable                                               365,000
 8.         On November 1, 2011, American Company sold inventory to a foreign customer. The account will be settled on March 1 with the receipt of $450,000 foreign currency units (FCU). On November 1, American also entered into a forward contract to hedge the exposed asset. The forward rate is $0.70 per unit of foreign currency. American has a December 31 fiscal year-end. Spot rates on relevant dates were:
                                                                        Per Unit of
                           Date                              Foreign Currency
           November 1                              $0.73
           December 31                               0.71
           March 1                                       0.74
 What will be the adjusted balance in the Accounts Receivable account on December 31, and how much gain or loss was recorded as a result of the adjustment?
            Receivable Balance                      Gain/Loss Recorded
a.      $319,500                                      $9,000 gain
b.      $319,500                                      $9,000 loss
c.      $333,000                                      $4,500 gain
d.      $333,000                                      $18,000 gain
 9.           A transaction gain or loss at the settlement date is:
a.   a change in the exchange rate quoted by a foreign exchange trader.
b.   synonymous with the translation of foreign currency financial statements into dollars.
c.   the difference between the recorded dollar amount of an account receivable denominated in a foreign currency and the amount of dollars received.
d.   the difference between the buying and selling rate quoted by a foreign exchange trader at the settlement date.
 10.      From the viewpoint of a U.S. company, a foreign currency transaction is a transaction:
a.   measured in a foreign currency.
b.   denominated in a foreign currency.
c.   measured in U.S. currency.
d.   denominated in U.S. currency.
 11.       The exchange rate quoted for future delivery of foreign currency is the definition of a(n):
a.   direct exchange rate.
b.   indirect exchange rate.
c.   spot rate.
d.   forward exchange rate.
 12.       A transaction loss would result from:
a.   an increase in the exchange rate applicable to an asset denominated in a foreign currency.
b.   a decrease in the exchange rate applicable to a liability denominated in a foreign currency.
c.   the import of merchandise when the transaction is denominated in a foreign currency.
d.   a decrease in the exchange rate applicable to an asset denominated in a foreign currency.
 13.       The forward exchange rate quoted for the remaining term of a forward contract is used to account for the contract when the forward contract:
a.   extends beyond one year or the current operating cycle.
b.   is a hedge of an identifiable foreign currency commitment.
c.   is a hedge of an exposed net liability position.
d.   was acquired to speculate in foreign currency.
 14.       A transaction gain or loss on a forward contract entered into as a hedge of an identifiable foreign currency commitment may be:
a.   included as a separate item in the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet.
b.   recognized currently in the determination of net income.
c.   deferred and included in the measurement of the related foreign currency transaction.
d.   none of these.
 15.       Craiger, Inc. a U.S. corporation, bought machine parts from Reinsch Company of Germany on March 1, 2011, for 70,000 marks, when the spot rate for marks was $0.5395. Craiger’s year-end was March 31, 2011, when the spot rate for marks was $0.5445. Craiger bought 70,000 marks and paid the invoice on April 20, 2011, when the spot rate was $0.5495. How much should be shown in Craiger’s income statements as foreign exchange (transaction) gain or loss for the years ended March 31, 2011 and 2012?
                     2011                     2012
a.   $0                       $0
b.   $0                       $350 loss
c.   $350 loss            $0
d.   $350 loss            $350 loss
 16.       A forward exchange contract is transacted at a discount if the current forward rate is:
a.   less than the expected spot rate.
b.   more than the expected spot rate.
c.   less than the current spot rate.
d.   more than the current spot rate.
 17.       Stuart Corporation a U.S. company, contracted to purchase foreign goods. Payment in foreign currency was due one month after delivery. Between the delivery date and the time of payment, the exchange rate changed in Stuart’s favor. The resulting gain should be reported in the financial statements as a(n):
a.   component of othercomprehensiveincome.
b.   component of incomefromcontinuingoperations.
c.   extraordinary income.
d.   deferred income.
 18.       Jackson Paving Company purchased equipment for 350,000 British pounds from a supplier in London on July 7, 2011. Payment in British pounds is due on Sept. 7, 2011. The exchange rates to purchase one pound is as follows:
                                                 July 7                   August 31, (year end)             September 7
           Spot-rate                        2.08                               2.05                                   2.04
           30-day rate                    2.07                               2.03                                       --
           60-day rate                    2.06                               1.99                                       --
             On its August 31, 2011 income statement, what amount should Jackson Paving report as a foreign exchange transaction gain:
a.   $14,000.
b.   $7,000.
c.   $10,500.
d.   $0.
 19.       On September 1, 2011, Swash Plating Company entered into two forward exchange contracts to purchase 250,000 euros each in 90 days. The relevant exchange rates are as follows:
                                                                                                                   Forward Rate
                                                                Spot rate                                For Dec. 1, 2011
           September 1, 2011                           1.46                                            1.47
           September 30, 2011 (year-end)       1.50                                            1.48
 The first forward contract was to hedge a purchase of inventory on September 1, payable on December 1. On September 30, what amount of foreign currency transaction loss should Swash Plating report in income?
a.   $0.
b.   $2,500.
c.   $5,000.
d.   $10,000.
 20.       On September 1, 2011, Swash Plating Company entered into two forward exchange contracts to purchase 250,000 euros each in 90 days. The relevant exchange rates are as follows:
                                                                                                                   Forward Rate
                                                                Spot rate                                For Dec. 1, 2011
           September 1, 2011                           1.46                                            1.47
           September 30, 2011 (year-end)       1.50                                            1.48
 The second forward contract was strictly for speculation. On September 30, 2011, what amount of foreign currency transaction gain should Swash Plating report in income?
a.   $0.
b.   $2,500.
c.   $5,000.
d.   $10,000.
 21.       On November 1, 2011, Prism Company sold inventory to a foreign customer. The account will be settled on March 1 with the receipt of 250,000 foreign currency units (FCU). On November 1, Prism also entered into a forward contract to hedge the exposed asset. The forward rate is $0.90 per unit of foreign currency. Prism has a December 31 fiscal year-end. Spot rates on relevant dates were:
                                          Per Unit of
Date                            Foreign Currency
November 1                        $0.93
December 31                         0.91
March 1                                 0.94
 The entry to record the forward contract is
a.   FCU Receivable                              225,000
     Premium on Forward Contract           7,500
              Dollars Payable                                              232,500
 b.   Dollars Receivable                          232,500
              Discount on Forward Contract                          7,500
              FCU Payable                                                  225,000
 c.    FCU Receivable                             232,500
              Discount on Forward Contract                          7,500
              Dollars Payable                                              225,000
 d.   Dollars Receivable                          225,000
     Discount on Forward Contract           7,500
              FCU Payable                                                  232,500
 22.       On November 1, 2011, National Company sold inventory to a foreign customer. The account will be settled on March 1 with the receipt of 200,000 foreign currency units (FCU). On November 1, National also entered into a forward contract to hedge the exposed asset. The forward rate is $0.80 per unit of foreign currency. National has a December 31 fiscal year-end. Spot rates on relevant dates were:
                                              Per Unit of
     Date                          Foreign Currency
November 1                             $0.83
December 31                             0.81
March 1                                     0.84
 What will be the adjusted balance in the Accounts Receivable account on December 31, and how much gain or loss was recorded as a result of the adjustment?
                   Receivable Balance       Gain/Loss Recorded
a.         $170,000                          $4,000 gain
b.         $162,000                          $4,000 loss
c.         $168,000                          $2,000 gain
d.         $164,000                          $2,000 loss
 23.       Caldron Company purchased equipment for 375,000 British pounds from a supplier in London on July 3, 2011. Payment in British pounds is due on Sept. 3, 2011. The exchange rates to purchase one pound is as follows:
                                                  July 3                 August 31, (year end)          September 3
           Spot-rate                         1.58                                1.55                             1.54
           30-day rate                      1.57                                1.53                                 --
           60-day rate                      1.56                                1.49                                 --
             On its August 31, 2011, income statement, what amount should Caldron report as a foreign exchange transaction gain:
a.   $18,750.
b.   $3,750.
c.   $11,250.
d.   $0.
 24.       On April 1, 2011, Trent Company entered into two forward exchange contracts to purchase 300,000 euros each in 90 days. The relevant exchange rates are as follows:
                                                                                        Forward Rate
                                                    Spot rate                 For Aug. 1, 2011
April 1, 2011                                     1.16                             1.17
April 30, 2011 (year-end)                 1.20                             1.18
 The first forward contract was to hedge a purchase of inventory on April 1, payable on December 1. On April 30, what amount of foreign currency transaction loss should Trent report in income?
a.       $0.
b.      $3,000.
c.       $9,000.
d.      $12,000.
 25.       On April 1, 2011, Trent Company entered into two forward exchange contracts to purchase 300,000 euros each in 90 days. The relevant exchange rates are as follows:
                                                                                        Forward Rate
                                                    Spot rate                 For Aug. 1, 2011
April 1, 2011                                     1.16                             1.17
April 30, 2011 (year-end)                 1.20                             1.18
 The second forward contract was strictly for speculation. On April 30, 2011, what amount of foreign currency transaction gain should Trent report in income.
a.       $0.
b.      $3,000.
c.       $9,000.
d.      $12,000.
 Problems
 12-1     On November 1, 2010, Dorsey Company sold inventory to a company in England. The sale was for 600,000 British pounds and payment will be received on February 1, 2011. On November 1, Dorsey entered into a forward contract to sell 600,000 British pounds on February 1 at the forward rate of $1.65. Spot rates for the British pound are as follows:
                      November 1                            $1.61
                      December 31                             1.67
                      February 1                                 1.62
             Dorsey has a December 31 fiscal year-end.
 Required:
Compute each of the following:
 1.         The dollars to be received on February 1, 2011, from selling the 600,000 pounds to the exchange dealer.
 2.         The dollars that would have been received from the account receivable if Dorsey had not hedged the sale contract with the forward contract.
 3.         The discount or premium on the forward contract.
 4.         The transaction gain or loss on the exposed asset related to the sale in 2010 and 2011.
 5.         The transaction gain or loss on the forward contract in 2010 and 2011.
 6.         The amount of the discount or premium on the forward contract amortized in 2010 and 2011.
 12-2     On December 1, 2010, Derrick Corporation agreed to purchase a machine to be manufactured by a company in Brazil. The purchase price is 1,150,000 Brazilian reals. To hedge against fluctuations in the exchange rate, Derrick entered into a forward contract on December 1 to buy 1,150,000 reals on April 1, the agreed date of machine delivery, for $0.375 per real. The following exchange rates were quoted:
                                                                              Forward Rate
           Date                               Spot Rate          (Delivery on 4/1)
           December 1                     0.390                       0.375
           December 31                   0.370                       0.373
           April 1                             0.385                             --
 Required:
Prepare journal entries necessary for Derrick during 2010 and 2011 to account for the transactions described above.
 12-3     Colony Corp., a U.S. corporation, entered into a contract on November 1, 2010, to sell two machines to Crown Company, for 95,000 foreign currency units (FCU). The machines were to be delivered and the amount collected on March 1, 2011.
           In order to hedge its commitment, Colony entered into a forward contract for 95,000 FCU delivery on March 1, 2011. The forward contract met all conditions for hedging an identifiable foreign currency commitment.
             Selected exchange rates for FCU at various dates were as follows:
             November 1, 2010 – Spot rate                                   $1.3076
              Forward rate for delivery on March 1, 2011           1.2980
           December 31, 2010 – Spot rate                                   1.3060
              Forward rate for delivery on March 1, 2011           1.3150
           March 1, 2011 – Spot rate                                           1.2972
 Required:
Prepare all journal entries relative to the above on the books of Colony Corp. on the following dates:
1.         November 1, 2010.
2.         Year-end adjustments on December 31, 2010.
3.         March 1, 2011. (Include all adjustments related to the forward contract.)
  12-4       On October 1, 2010, Nance Company purchased inventory from a foreign customer for 750,000 units of foreign currency (FCU) due on January 31, 2011. Simultaneously, Nance entered into a forward contract for 750,000 units of FC for delivery on January 31, 2011, at the forward rate of $0.75. Payment was made to the foreign customer on January 31, 2011. Spot rates on October 1, December 31, and January 31, were $0.72, $0.73, and $0.76, respectively. Nance amortizes all premiums and discounts on forward contracts and closes its books on December 31.
 Required:
 A.        Prepare all journal entries relative to the above to be made by Nance on October 1, 2010.
B.        Prepare all journal entries relative to the above to be made by Nance on December 31, 2010.
C.        Compute the transaction gain or loss on the forward contract that would be recorded in 2011. Indicate clearly whether the amount is a gain or loss.
  12-5       On October 1, 2010, Kline Company shipped equipment to a foreign customer for a foreign currency (FC) price of FC 3,000,000 due on January 31, 2011. All revenue realization criteria were satisfied and accordingly the sale was recorded by Kline Company on October 1. Simultaneously, Kline entered into a forward contract to sell 3,000,000 FCU on January 31, 2011 for $1,200,000. Payment was received from the foreign customer on January 31, 2011. Spot rates on October 1, December 31, and January 31 were $0.42, $0.425, and $0.435, respectively. Kline amortizes all premiums and discounts on forward contracts and closes its books on December 31.
 Required:
Prepare all journal entries relative to the above to be made by Kline during 2010 and 2011.
 12-6     On July 15, Worth, Inc. purchased 88,500,000 yen worth of parts from a Tokyo company paying 20% down, and the balance is due in 90 days. Interest is payable at a rate of 8% on the unpaid balance. The exchange rate on July 15, was $1.00 = 118 Japanese yen. On October 13, the exchange rate was $1.00 = 114 Japanese yen.
 Required:
Prepare journal entries to record the purchase and payment of this foreign currency transaction in U.S. dollars.
  12-7     On November 1, 2010, Bisk Corporation, a calendar-year U.S. Corporation, invested in a speculative contract to purchase 700,000 euros on January 31, 2011, from a German brokerage firm. Bisk agreed to buy 700,000 euros at a fixed price of $1.46 per euro. The brokerage firm agreed to send 700,000 euros to Bisk on January 31, 2011. The spot rates for euros are:
                                    November 1, 2010              1 euro = 1.45
                                  December 31, 2010            1 euro = 1.43
                                  January 31, 2011                1 euro = 1.44
Required:
Prepare the journal entries that Bisk would record on November 1, December 31, and January 31.
  12-8          Consider the following information:
 1.     On November 1, 2011, a U.S. firm contracts to sell equipment (with an asking price of 500,000 pesos) in Mexico. The firm will take delivery and will pay for the equipment on February 1, 2012.
 2.     On November 1, 2011, the company enters into a forward contract to sell 500,000 pesos for $0.0948 on February 1, 2012.
 3.     Spot rates and the forward rates for February 1, 2012, settlement were as follows (dollars per peso):
                                                                                                     Forward Rate
                                                                        Spot Rate              for 2/1/12
                 November 1, 2011                            $0.0954                 $0.0948
                 Balance sheet date (12/31/11)            0.0949                   0.0944
                 February 1, 2012                                0.0947
4.     On February 1, the equipment was sold for 500,000 pesos. The cost of the equipment was $20,000.
           Required:
Prepare all journal entries needed on November 1, December 31, and February 1 to account for the forward contract, the firm commitment, and the transaction to sell the equipment.
 Short Answer
 1.      Accounting for a foreign currency transaction involves the terms measured and denominated. Describe a foreign currency transaction and distinguish between the terms measured and denominated.
2.      There are a number of business situations in which a firm may acquire a forward exchange contract. Identify three common situations in which a forward exchange contract can be used as a hedge.
  Short Answer Questions from the Textbook
 1.                  Define currency exchange rates and distinguish between “direct” and “indirect” quotations.
 2.                  Explain why a firm is exposed to an added risk when it enters into a transaction that is to be settled in a foreign currency.
 3.                  Name the three stages of concern to the accountant in accounting for import–export transactions. Briefly explain the accounting for each stage.
 4.                  How should a transaction gain or loss be reported that is related to an unsettled receivable recorded when the firm’s inventory was exported?
 5.                  A U.S. firm carried a receivable for 100,000 yen. Assuming that the direct exchange rate declined from $.009 at the date of the transaction to $.006at the balance sheet date, compute the transaction gain or loss. What balance would be reported for the receivable in the firm’s balance sheet?
 6.                  Explain what is meant by the “two-transaction method” in recording exporting or importing trans-actions. What support is given for this method?
 7.                  Describe a forward exchange contract.
 8.                  Explain the effects on income from hedging a foreign currency exposed net asset position or net liability position.
 9.                  What criteria must be satisfied for a foreign currency transaction to be considered a hedge of an identifiable foreign currency commitment?
 10.              The FASB classifies forward contracts as those acquired for the purpose of hedging and those acquired for the purpose of speculation. What main differences are there in accounting for these two classifications?
 11.              How are foreign currency exchange gains and losses from hedging a forecasted transaction handled?
 12.              What is a put option, and how might it be used to hedge a forecasted transaction?
 13.              Define a derivative instrument, and describe the keystones identified by the FASB for the ac-counting for such instruments.
 14.              Differentiate between forward-based derivatives and option-based derivatives.
 15.              List some of the criteria laid out by the FASB that are required for a gain or loss on forecasted trans-actions (a cash flow hedge) to be excluded from the income statement. If these criteria are satisfied, where are the gains or losses reported, and when (if ever) are they shown in the income statement? What is the rationale for this treatment?
   Business Ethics Question from Textbook
 Executive stock options (ESOs) are used to provide incentives for executives to improve company performance. ESOs are usually granted “at-the-money,” meaning that the exercise price of the options is set to equal the market price of the underlying stock on the grant date. Clearly, executives would prefer to be granted options when the stock price (and thus the exercise price) is at its lowest. Backdating options is the practice of choosing a past date when the market price was particularly low. Backdating has not, in the past, been illegal if no documents are forged, if communicated to the shareholders, and if properly reflected in earnings and in taxes.
 1.                  Since backdating gives the executive an “instant” profit, why wouldn’t the firm simply grant an option with the exercise price lower than the cur-rent market price?
 2.                  Suppose the executive was not involved in back-dating the ESOs. Does the executive face any ethical issues?
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ECO 302 Week 6 Quiz - Strayer
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 Chapter 8 and 9
 TRUE/FALSE
             1.         Intertemporal substitution effects are substitution effects over time.
              2.         When the marginal product of labor increases due to a positive technology change, the real wage falls.
              3.         The model predicts that in response to a permanent positive change in technology real consumption will be procyclical.
              4.         An increase in the interest rate makes future consumption cheaper and future leisure more expensive.
              5.         The income effect on labor supply is positive.
              6.         A trend line for U.S. GDP since World War II is mostly flat.
              7.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will increase the real wage rate.
              8.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will decrease the interest rate.
              9.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will decrease the interest rate.
              10.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that the real wage will be procyclical.
              11.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that the real rental price of capital will be procyclical.
              12.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that real investment will be countercyclical.
  MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         The cyclical part of real GDP is
a.         trend real GDP less real GDP.            c.         real GDP/trend real GDP.
b.         real GDP less trend real GDP.            d.         trend real GDP/real GDP.
               2.         Real GDP equals:
a.         trend real GDP plus the cyclical part of GDP            c.         trend real GDP less the cyclical part of GDP.
b.         trend real GDP times the cyclical part of GDP.         d.         trend real GDP divided by the cyclical part of GDP.
               3.         An equilibrium business-cycle model:
a.         uses shocks to GDP to find equilibrium conditions.  c.         uses equilibrium conditions to determine how shocks affect real GDP and other macroeconomic variables. .
b.         uses GDP to find equilibrium shocks to the economy.           d.         uses GDP to find equilibrium conditions.
               4.         An increase in the level of technology, A, causes:
a.         an increase in the MPL           c.         a movement along the MPL hiring more labor.
b.         a decrease in the MPL            d.         a movement along the MPL hiring less labor.
               5.         The model predicts that an economic expansion caused by an increase in technology, A, will:
a.         drive down the real wage.      c.         drive up the real wage.
b.         cause labor supply to be greater than labor demand.  d.         lead to a relatively low real wage.
               6.         The model predicts that in a recession caused by an decrease in technology, A, we would observe:
a.         a relatively low real wage.      c.         a relatively high real wage.
b.         an excess demand for labor.   d.         an increase in the MPL
               7.         If technology, A, increases, then:
a.         the MPK and the demand for capital services increase.         c.         the MPK increases and the demand for capital services decreases.
b.         the MPK and the demand for capital services decrease.        d.         the MPK decreases and the demand for capital services increases.
               8.         The model predicts that if there is a technology, A, shock, the real rental price of capital will:
a.         be relatively high during an economic expansion or a recession.        c.         be relatively high during an economic expansion and relatively low during a recession.
b.         be relatively low during an economic expansion or a recession.         d.         be relatively low during an economic expansion and relatively high during a recession.
               9.         The model predicts that if there is a technology, A, shock, the interest rate, i, will be:
a.         relatively high during an economic expansion or a recession.            c.         relatively high during an economic expansion and relatively low during a recession.
b.         relatively low during an economic expansion or a recession. d.         relatively low during an economic expansion and relatively high during a recession.
               10.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to rise due to the income effect. c.         tend to fall due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         may rise or fall depending on whether the income effect is greater than the substitution effect or not.       d.            all of the above.
               11.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to fall due to the income effect. c.         tend to rise due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         may rise or fall depending on whether the income effect is greater than the substitution effect or not.       d.            all of the above.
               12.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to rise due to the income effect. c.         tend to rise due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         be unchanged. d.         tend to fluctuate.
               13.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to fall due to the income effect. c.         tend to fall due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         be unchanged. d.         tend to fluctuate.
               14.       If technology, A, increases permanently then we would expect:
a.         consumption to decrease as the substitution effect would be greater than the income effect of the change.            c.         consumption to increase as the substitution effect would be greater than the income effect of the change.
b.         consumption to increase as the income effect would be greater than the substitution effect of the change.            d.         consumption to decrease as the income effect would be greater than the substitution effect of the change.
               15.       If there is a permanent increase in technology, A, then we expect consumption to:
a.         increase by more than real GDP.        c.         increase but by less than real GDP.
b.         increase by the same amount as real GDP.     d.         be unchanged.
               16.       If there were a permanent increase in technology, A, we would expect real saving to:
a.         increase as the increase in real consumption is less than real GDP.    c.         decrease as the increase in real consumption is more than real GDP.
b.         increase as the increase in real consumption is more than real GDP.  d.         decrease as the increase in real consumption is less than real GDP.
               17.       A variable that moves in the same direction as real GDP is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               18.       A variable that has little tendency to move during a business cycle is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               19.       A variable that moves in the opposite direction as real GDP is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               20.       An acyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               21.       An procyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               22.       An countercyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               23.       US real consumer expenditure since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               24.       US real gross domestic private investment since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               25.       Since 1954, in the US:
a.         real gross private investment has varied more than real GDP, while real consumer expenditure has varied less than real GDP.            c.         real gross private investment has varied less than real GDP, while real consumer expenditure has varied more than real GDP.
b.         real gross private investment and real consumer expenditure have varied more than real GDP.       d.         real gross private investment and real consumer expenditure have varied less than real GDP.
               26.       US real average earnings of production workers since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               27.       US real rental price of capital since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical rather countercyclical as the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical rather procyclical as the model predicts.
               28.       An example of a temporary change in technology would be:
a.         a new discovery.         c.         a harvest failure.
b.         a new invention.          d.         all of the above.
               29.       An example of a temporary change in technology would be:
a.         a new discovery.         c.         a new invention.
b.         a general strike.           d.         all of the above.
               30.       With a temporary change in technology the model predicts:
a.         the interest rate will be procyclical.    c.         a higher interest rate will motivate households to increase current real saving.
b.         a lower interest rate will motivate households to  increase current real consumption.           d.         all of the above.
               31.       With a temporary change in technology the model predicts:
a.         the interest rate will be procyclical.    c.         a higher interest rate will motivate households to decrease current real saving.
b.         a lower interest rate will motivate households to decrease current real consumption.           d.         all of the above.
               32.       With a temporary change in technology, we would expect:
a.         the income effect of consumption to be larger.          c.         the intertemporal substitution effect on consumption to be larger.
b.         the income effect of consumption to be smaller.        d.         the intertemporal substitution effect on consumption to be larger.
               33.       With a temporary positive change in technology we would expect real current consumption:
a.         to increase a lot.          c.         to remain unchanged.
b.         to decrease a lot.         d.         to either increase or decrease a little.
               34.       With a temporary change in technology, A, we expect little change in consumption because:
a.         the income effect on consumption is larger.   c.         the intertemporal-substitution effect is larger.
b.         the income effect on consumption is smaller.             d.         the intertemporal-substitution effect is smaller.
               35.       The model predicts that an economic expansion caused by a  temporary increase in technology, A, would lead to:
a.         high real GDP and investment.           c.         low real GDP and investment.
b.         low real GDP and high real investment.         d.         high real GDP and low real investment.
               36.       Temporary changes in technology, A, conflict with the data in that:
a.         investment is clearly acyclical.            c.         the wage rate is clearly countercyclical.
b.         consumption is clearly procyclical.     d.         all of the above.
               37.       A higher real wage:
a.         makes consumption more expensive.  c.         makes leisure less expensive.
b.         makes it a worse deal for households to work an extra hour. d.         makes leisure more expensive.
               38.       A higher real wage:
a.         increases the income of households inducing them to work more.    c.         increases the income of households inducing them to work less.
b.         decreases the income of households inducing them to work more.   d.         decreases the income of households inducing them to work less.
               39.       The overall effect of a higher real wage is:
a.         to increase labor as the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.            c.         to decrease labor as the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.
b.         ambiguous on labor as the income and substitution effect work against each other.             d.         ambiguous because the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.
               40.       We expect that an increase in real wages will:
a.         increase labor supply, if temporary.    c.         increase labor supply, whether permanent or temporary.
b.         increase labor supply, if permanent.    d.         reduce labor supply, whether permanent or temporary.
               41.       An increase in the interest rate induces worker to:
a.         work more in the current period and less in the future.          c.         work less in the current period and more in the future.
b.         work more in the current period and in the future.     d.         work less in the current period and in the future.
               42.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         future consumption cheaper.   c.         current consumption more expensive.
b.         future leisure cheaper. d.         all of the above.
               43.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         future consumption and leisure more expensive.        c.         future consumption and leisure cheaper.
b.         future consumption cheaper and future leisure more expensive.        d.         future consumption more expensive and future leisure cheaper.
               44.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         current consumption and leisure more expensive.      c.         current consumption and leisure cheaper.
b.         current consumption cheaper and current. leisure more expensive.    d.         current consumption more expensive and current leisure cheaper.
               45.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         current consumption and future leisure more expensive.        c.         current consumption and future leisure cheaper.
b.         current consumption cheaper and future. leisure more expensive.     d.         current consumption more expensive and future leisure cheaper.
               46.       Intertemporal substitution effects motivate households to:
a.         supply more labor when the wage rate is temporarily low.     c.         supply less labor when the wage rate is temporarily low.
b.         supply more labor when the wage rate is permanently low.   d.         supply more labor when the wage rate is permanently low.
               47.       In the US since 1964 total hours worked and employment have been:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               48.       The measure of labor productivity used in the popular media is:
a.         Y/L      c.         procyclical.
b.         average product of labor.        d.         all of the above.
               49.       In the model with an upward sloping supply curve of labor and increase demand for labor due to a positive technological, A, change:
a.         increases employment and the real wage.      c.         decreases employment and the real wage.
b.         decreases employment and increases the real wage.   d.         decreases employment and increases the real wage.
               50.       When the labor supply of households is allowed to slope upward:
a.         the model predictions match the observed data that employment and real wages are countercyclical.         c.            the model predictions do not match the observed data that employment and real wages are procyclical.
b.         the model predictions do not match the observed data that employment and real wages are countercyclical.            d.         the model predictions match the observed data that employment and real wages are procyclical.
               51.       The most important feature of U.S. real GDP in the post-World War II era most likely is
a.         the overall upward trend.        c.         the large fluctuations relative to trend.
b.         the high standard deviation from trend.         d.         the many recessions related to politics.
               52.       The equilibrium business cycle model, unlike the long-run Solow growth model, assumes that
a.         changes in capital are important.         c.         the interest rate always rises.
b.         changes in capital are insignificant.    d.         the cyclical growth in GDP is positive.
               53.       Suppose that the economy suffers a major natural disaster.  The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the interest rate will be
a.         unchanged.      c.         relatively low.
b.         relatively high.            d.         greater than the return on capital.
               54.       Suppose that the economy suffers a major natural disaster.  The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the real rental price of capital will be
a.         unchanged.      c.         relatively low.
b.         relatively high.            d.         greater than the return on capital.
               55.       According to the equilibrium business-cycle model, a major improvement in competitiveness in a nation’s economy will affect the real wage in which way?
a.         The real wage will be unchanged.       c.         The real wage will be relatively low.
b.         The real wage cannot be predicted.    d.         The real wage will be relatively high..
               56.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology causes
a.         an economic expansion.          c.         a trend level of GDP.
b.         a recession.      d.         an economic shock.
               57.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an economic expansion typically starts with
a.         an improvement in the level of technology.    c.         a decline in the level of technology
b.         an increase in the stock of capital.      d.         a decrease in the stock of capital.
               58.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession typically starts with
a.         an improvement in the level of technology.    c.         a decline in the level of technology
b.         an increase in the stock of capital.      d.         a decrease in the stock of capital.
               59.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low real wage and relatively high real rental price of capital.      c.         a relatively high real wage and relatively low real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively low real wage and real rental price of capital.      d.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.
               60.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low interest rate and relatively high real rental price of capital.   c.         a relatively high interest rate and relatively low real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.     d.         a relatively low interest rate and real rental price of capital.
               61.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an economic expansion would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low real wage and relatively high real rental price of capital.      c.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively low real wage and real rental price of capital.      d.         a relatively high real wage and relatively low real rental price of capital.
               62.       Which of the following variables is procyclical, according to the equilibrium business-cycle model?
a.         the real wage rate        c.         the real rental rate on capital
b.         the real interest rate     d.         all of the above
               63.       Which of the following variables is countercyclical, according to the equilibrium business-cycle model?
a.         the real wage rate        c.         the real rental rate on capital
b.         the real interest rate     d.         none of the above
               64.       The equilibrium real-business cycle model predicts that labor productivity will be
a.         procyclical.      c.         acyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         indeterminate.
               65.       The measure known as total hours worked
a.         multiplies employment by 40. c.         divides employment by 24.
b.         divides employment by the average wage rate.          d.         multiplies employment by the average weekly hours worked per employee.
   SHORT ANSWER
             1.         If there is a positive technological change, what happens in the labor market?
               2.         What does the model predict about investment when technology increases and why and what do the data show about investment in the US?
              3.         What happens to consumption when there is a permanent and temporary increase in technology, A, and why?
              4.         What is the relationship between real GDP and the cyclical part of GDP?
              5.         What happens in the model, if a temporary technology change increase real wages temporarily?
              6.         What does the real business-cycle model predict will be the relationship between an economic expansion and the real rental price of capital?
  Chapter 9
 TRUE/FALSE
             1.         When the capital utilization rate,  , is added to the model the interest rate becomes countercyclical.
              2.        
The higher the capital utilization rate, , the greater the depreciation rate of capital,  .
              3.         An increase in unemployment insurance payments decreases effective real income while unemployed.
              4.         The duration of unemployment is the number unemployed divided by the labor force.
              5.         Unemployment will exist in an market clearing model, if it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.
              6.         An increase in the technology level leads to an outward shift of the demand curve for capital services.
              7.         An increase in the technology level leads to an increase in the market-clearing real rental price of capital.
              8.         When a variable capital utilization rate is added to the Barro model, the model predicts that the capital utilization rate will be countercyclical.
              9.         GDP can rise when a decrease in technology leads to an increase in the capital utilization rate.
              10.       The natural rate of unemployment in an economy occurs when the job separation rate equals zero.
    MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         The capital utilization rate is:
a.         the rate capital wears out in a particular period.         c.         the percentage of capital used in production.
b.         the depreciation rate.  d.         all of the above.
               2.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP increases.            c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) increases.
b.         machines are in use more hours per period.    d.         all of the above.
               3.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP decreases.           c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) increases.
b.         machines are in use fewer hours per period.   d.         all of the above.
               4.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP decreases.           c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) decreases.
b.         machines are in use more hours per period.    d.         all of the above.
               5.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP increases.            c.         (hour per period)•(number of machines) decreases.
b.         machines are in use fewer hours per period.   d.         all of the above.
               6.         When we allow a capital utilization rate,  , less than 100%, then the rate of return form owning capital becomes:
a.         (R/P) - .          c.         (R/P)• -  .
b.         (R/P)• -  ( ).    d.         (R/P) -  ( ).
               7.         An owner of capital might set their capital utilization rate below 100% because:
a.         the depreciation rate goes up with the capital utilization rate.           c.         to make time available for maintaining their capital.
b.         machines wear out faster when used more intensively.          d.         all of the above.
               8.         The optimal capital utilization rate,  , is that    where:
a.         (R/P)• -  ( ) is maximized.      c.         (R/P)•  >  ( )
b.         (R/P)• =  ( )    d.         (R/P)•  <  ( )
               9.         the net real income from supplying capital services is:
a.         (R/P)• K -  ( )K.          c.          ( )K - (R/P)•
b.         (R/P)• K +  ( ).            d.         (R/P)• K •  ( )K
               10.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise the user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         operating at inconvenient times.         c.         operating when complementary services like transporters are unavailable or more expensive.
b.         paying overtime to employees operating the machines.          d.         all of the above.
               11.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         operating at inconvenient times.         c.         less highway congestion.
b.         off-peak utility prices. d.         all of the above.
               12.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         less highway congestion.        c.         operating when complementary services like transportation are unavailable or more expensive.
b.         off peak utility prices. d.         all of the above.
               13.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         less highway congestion.        c.         off peak utility prices.
b.         paying overtime to employees operating the machines.          d.         all of the above.
               14.       GDP rises can rise in an expansion due to:
a.         an increase in technology, A, directly increasing GDP.         c.         an increase in technology, A, causing an increase in the capital utilization rate, the quantity of capital services and GDP.
b.         an increase in technology, A, causing an increase in labor, L and GDP.        d.         all of the above.
               15.       The model predicts the capital utilization rate, , is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               16.       The model predicts that with a negative shock to technology, the capital utilization rate,  , will:
a.         rise as GDP rises.        c.         rise as GDP falls.
b.         fall as GDP falls.         d.         fall as GDP rises.
               17.       After the capital utilization rate,   , is included in the model, the interest rate:
a.         is still procyclical.        c.         becomes procyclical.
b.         is still countercyclical.             d.         becomes countercyclical.
               18.       The US data from 1948 to 2006 shows the capital utilization rate,  , is:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical the opposite the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical the opposite as the model predicts.
               19.       The model predicts that with a positive shock to technology the capital utilization rate,  , will
a.         fall as GDP falls.         c.         rise as GDP rises.
b.         fall as GDP rises.        d.         rise as GDP falls.
               20.       If the rental price of capital increases, then the capital utilization rate,  ,:
a.         also increases.  c.         remains the same.
b.         decreases.        d.         depends on whether the substitution rate is greater than the income effect.
               21.       The unemployment rate is:
a.         the number of workers in the labor force unemployed divided by the number of workers employed.         c.            the number of workers in the labor force unemployed divided by the labor force.
b.         the number of workers employed divide by the number of workers in the labor force unemployed.            d.            the labor force divided by the number of workers in the labor force unemployed.
               22.       The vacancy rate in the labor market is:
a.         the number of job openings divided by the number of unemployed people in the labor force.         c.         the ratio of open jobs to filled jobs.
b.         the number of job openings divided by the number of workers in the labor force.   d.         the ratio of open jobs to the total number of jobs that employers want occupied.
               23.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the number of unemployed workers in the labor force is:
a.         5 million.         c.         2 million.
b.         3 million.         d.         none of the above.
               24.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the number of vacancies is:
a.         5 million.         c.         2 million.
b.         3 million.         d.         none of the above.
               25.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the unemployment rate is:
a.         3%.      c.         5.3%.
b.         5%.      d.         none of the above.
               26.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, vacancy rate is:
a.         5%.      c.         3.1%.
b.         3.2%.   d.         3%.
               27.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 94 million people employed, there are 99 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the vacancy rate is:
a.         5%.      c.         5.3%
b.         5.1%    d.         1%
               28.       One minus the unemployment rate, 1 - u, is:
a.         the vacancy rate.         c.         the employment rate.
b.         the labor force.            d.         the level of employment.
               29.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         there are frictions in the labor market.            c.         we allow for differences among workers and jobs.
b.         it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.    d.         all of the above.
               30.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         the labor market is in disequilibrium.  c.         we allow for differences among workers and jobs.
b.         we allow capital utilization of less than 100%.           d.         all of the above.
               31.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         there are frictions in the labor market.            c.         the labor market is in equilibrium.
b.         the labor supply curve is upward sloping.       d.         all of the above.
               32.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         all workers are identical.         c.         the labor supply curve is upward sloping.
b.         it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.    d.         all of the above.
               33.       A worker will accept a job offer,  if the real wage offer is above:
a.         the worker’s effective real income when unemployed,  .       c.         the worker’s reservation wage.
b.         the wage the worker earned in their last job.  d.         the average wage in the economy.
               34.       An increase in a worker’s effective real income while unemployed, , will cause the worker’s:
a.         real wage offers to increase.   c.         real reservation wage to increase.
b.         real wage offers to decrease.  d.         real reservation wage to decrease.
               35.       We expect that an increase in the effective real income while unemployed  ,
a.         will reduce the job-finding rate.         c.         increase real wage offers.
b.         will increase the job-finding rate.       d.         decrease real wage offers.
               36.       A decrease in workers’ effective real incomes while unemployed,  , will:
a.         lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment.          c.         raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment.
b.         lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.      d.         raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.
               37.       A negative shock to productivity, A, will:
a.         lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment.          c.         raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment.
b.         lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.      d.         raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.
               38.       Job separations can be due to:
a.         an adverse shock to the firm’s production function.  c.         a change in a worker’s circumstances such as changing locations.
b.         the job being temporary from the start like a seasonal job.     d.         all of the above.
               39.       Job separations can be due to:
a.         a positive shock to the firm’s production function.    c.         a change in a worker’s circumstances such as changing locations.
b.         an increase in technology.       d.         all of the above.
               40.       Job separations can be caused by:
a.         an adverse shock to the firm’s production function.  c.         increased technology, A.
b.         foreign competition.    d.         all of the above.
               41.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is the unemployment rate:
a.         where job findings equal job separations.       c.         the job separation rate equals the job finding rate.
b.         job findings are maximized.    d.         job separations are minimized.
               42.       If the job separation rate is 0.02 and the job finding rate is 0.3, then the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         6.25%  c.         6.67%
b.         15%     d.         none of the above.
               43.       If the job separation rate is 0.03 and the job finding rate is 0.7, then the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         4.2%    c.         23.3%
b.         4.1%    d.         none of the above.
               44.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         positively related to that job separations rate.            c.         fixed.
b.         zero.    d.         positively related to the job finding rate.
               45.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         negatively related to that job separations rate.           c.         fixed.
b.         zero.    d.         negatively related to the job finding rate.
               46.       In US data vacancies from 1954 to 2006 as measure by the help-wanted index are:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical the opposite the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical the opposite the model predicts.
               47.       Discouraged workers are:
a.         those that are unemployed.     c.         those who have dropped out of the labor force.
b.         those that are underemployed.            d.         those who are under paid.
               48.       The job-finding rate is:
a.         the number of hires per month divided by the number unemployed.             c.         the number of hires per month divided by the unemployment rate.
b.         the number of hires per month divided by the number employed.     d.         the number of hires per month divided by the employment rate.
               49.       The US data from December 2000 to February 2006 shows that the job finding rate is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               50.       The US data from December 2000 to February 2006 shows that the job separation rate is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               51.       Owners of capital choose the utilization rate to
a.         maximize their net real income from supplying capital services.        c.         minimize their net real income from supplying capital services.
b.         maximize their net real costs from supplying capital services.            d.         minimize their net real rental payments from supplying capital services.
               52.       When the Barro model allows for variable capital utilization rates, the result is that an increase in the technology level causes
a.         a decrease in the capital utilization rate.         c.         a decrease in the quantity of capital services.
b.         an increase in the capital utilization rate.        d.         no change in the quantity of capital services.
               53.       When the technology level increases,
a.         the demand for capital services shifts to the left.       c.         the demand for capital services shifts to the right.
b.         the supply of capital services shifts to the right.         d.         both (b) and (c).
               54.       When the technology level increases, the market for capital services
a.         fails to clear.    c.         clears at the original real rental price.
b.         clears at a lower real rental price.        d.         clears at a higher real rental price.
               55.       When the technology level increases, the market for capital services
a.         clears at a higher quantity of capital services. c.         clears at the original quantity of capital services.
b.         clears at a lower quantity of capital services.  d.         fails to clear.
               56.       On a graph of the capital services market, the supply of capital services
a.         slopes down because an increase in the real rental price raises the capital utilization rate.    c.         slopes up because an increase in the real rental price lowers the capital utilization rate.
b.         slopes up because an increase in the real rental price raises the capital utilization rate.          d.         slopes down because an increase in the real rental price lowers the capital utilization rate.
               57.       On a graph of the capital services market, the demand for capital services shifts out when
a.         the technology level decreases, which increases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.   c.         the technology level increases, which increases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.
b.         the technology level decreases, which decreases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.   d.         the technology level increases, which decreases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.
               58.       U.S. data show that the labor force is
a.         strongly countercyclical.         c.         strongly procyclical.
b.         acyclical.         d.         weakly procyclical.
               59.       U.S. data show that the employment rate is
a.         strongly procyclical.    c.         strongly countercyclical.
b.         acyclical.         d.         weakly countercyclical.
               60.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         increase a person’s effective real income while unemployed.            c.         have no effect on a person’s effective real income while unemployed.
b.         decrease a person’s effective real income while unemployed.           d.         either (a) or (c).
               61.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         decrease a person’s duration of unemployment.         c.         have no effect on a person’s duration of unemployment.
b.         increase a person’s duration of unemployment.          d.         either (a) or (c).
               62.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         increase the job finding rate.   c.         decrease the job-finding rate.
b.         have no effect on the job-finding rate.           d.         either (a) or (b).
               63.       The job-separation rate is likely to be high among workers who are
a.         inexperienced and difficult to evaluate.         c.         in industries where there are frequent shocks to product demand.
b.         likely to experience changes in job preferences.         d.         all of the above.
               64.       At the natural rate of unemployment,
a.         the job-separation rate is positive.       c.         the job-finding rate equals zero.
b.         the job-separation rate equals zero.     d.         both (b) and (c).
               65.       At the natural rate of unemployment,
a.         the job-separation and job-finding rates are each zero.          c.         tthe job-separation and job-finding rates are both negative.
b.         the job-separation and job-finding rates are both positive.     d.         the job-separation rate is zero and the job-finding rate is positive.
   SHORT ANSWER
             1.         How does the capital utilization enter the production function?
              2.         How does the capital utilization rate affect the depreciation rate and why?
              3.         How can there be unemployment in a market clearing model?
              4.         How does the Barro model define the natural rate of unemployment and what does the natural rate of unemployment depend on.
              5.         What is the reservation wage?
              6.         How does an increase in technology affect the market-clearing real rental price of capital services?
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ECO 302 Week 6 Quiz - Strayer
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 Chapter 8 and 9
 TRUE/FALSE
             1.         Intertemporal substitution effects are substitution effects over time.
              2.         When the marginal product of labor increases due to a positive technology change, the real wage falls.
              3.         The model predicts that in response to a permanent positive change in technology real consumption will be procyclical.
              4.         An increase in the interest rate makes future consumption cheaper and future leisure more expensive.
              5.         The income effect on labor supply is positive.
              6.         A trend line for U.S. GDP since World War II is mostly flat.
              7.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will increase the real wage rate.
              8.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will decrease the interest rate.
              9.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will decrease the interest rate.
              10.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that the real wage will be procyclical.
              11.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that the real rental price of capital will be procyclical.
              12.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that real investment will be countercyclical.
  MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         The cyclical part of real GDP is
a.         trend real GDP less real GDP.            c.         real GDP/trend real GDP.
b.         real GDP less trend real GDP.            d.         trend real GDP/real GDP.
               2.         Real GDP equals:
a.         trend real GDP plus the cyclical part of GDP            c.         trend real GDP less the cyclical part of GDP.
b.         trend real GDP times the cyclical part of GDP.         d.         trend real GDP divided by the cyclical part of GDP.
               3.         An equilibrium business-cycle model:
a.         uses shocks to GDP to find equilibrium conditions.  c.         uses equilibrium conditions to determine how shocks affect real GDP and other macroeconomic variables. .
b.         uses GDP to find equilibrium shocks to the economy.           d.         uses GDP to find equilibrium conditions.
               4.         An increase in the level of technology, A, causes:
a.         an increase in the MPL           c.         a movement along the MPL hiring more labor.
b.         a decrease in the MPL            d.         a movement along the MPL hiring less labor.
               5.         The model predicts that an economic expansion caused by an increase in technology, A, will:
a.         drive down the real wage.      c.         drive up the real wage.
b.         cause labor supply to be greater than labor demand.  d.         lead to a relatively low real wage.
               6.         The model predicts that in a recession caused by an decrease in technology, A, we would observe:
a.         a relatively low real wage.      c.         a relatively high real wage.
b.         an excess demand for labor.   d.         an increase in the MPL
               7.         If technology, A, increases, then:
a.         the MPK and the demand for capital services increase.         c.         the MPK increases and the demand for capital services decreases.
b.         the MPK and the demand for capital services decrease.        d.         the MPK decreases and the demand for capital services increases.
               8.         The model predicts that if there is a technology, A, shock, the real rental price of capital will:
a.         be relatively high during an economic expansion or a recession.        c.         be relatively high during an economic expansion and relatively low during a recession.
b.         be relatively low during an economic expansion or a recession.         d.         be relatively low during an economic expansion and relatively high during a recession.
               9.         The model predicts that if there is a technology, A, shock, the interest rate, i, will be:
a.         relatively high during an economic expansion or a recession.            c.         relatively high during an economic expansion and relatively low during a recession.
b.         relatively low during an economic expansion or a recession. d.         relatively low during an economic expansion and relatively high during a recession.
               10.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to rise due to the income effect. c.         tend to fall due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         may rise or fall depending on whether the income effect is greater than the substitution effect or not.       d.            all of the above.
               11.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to fall due to the income effect. c.         tend to rise due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         may rise or fall depending on whether the income effect is greater than the substitution effect or not.       d.            all of the above.
               12.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to rise due to the income effect. c.         tend to rise due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         be unchanged. d.         tend to fluctuate.
               13.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to fall due to the income effect. c.         tend to fall due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         be unchanged. d.         tend to fluctuate.
               14.       If technology, A, increases permanently then we would expect:
a.         consumption to decrease as the substitution effect would be greater than the income effect of the change.            c.         consumption to increase as the substitution effect would be greater than the income effect of the change.
b.         consumption to increase as the income effect would be greater than the substitution effect of the change.            d.         consumption to decrease as the income effect would be greater than the substitution effect of the change.
               15.       If there is a permanent increase in technology, A, then we expect consumption to:
a.         increase by more than real GDP.        c.         increase but by less than real GDP.
b.         increase by the same amount as real GDP.     d.         be unchanged.
               16.       If there were a permanent increase in technology, A, we would expect real saving to:
a.         increase as the increase in real consumption is less than real GDP.    c.         decrease as the increase in real consumption is more than real GDP.
b.         increase as the increase in real consumption is more than real GDP.  d.         decrease as the increase in real consumption is less than real GDP.
               17.       A variable that moves in the same direction as real GDP is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               18.       A variable that has little tendency to move during a business cycle is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               19.       A variable that moves in the opposite direction as real GDP is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               20.       An acyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               21.       An procyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               22.       An countercyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               23.       US real consumer expenditure since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               24.       US real gross domestic private investment since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               25.       Since 1954, in the US:
a.         real gross private investment has varied more than real GDP, while real consumer expenditure has varied less than real GDP.            c.         real gross private investment has varied less than real GDP, while real consumer expenditure has varied more than real GDP.
b.         real gross private investment and real consumer expenditure have varied more than real GDP.       d.         real gross private investment and real consumer expenditure have varied less than real GDP.
               26.       US real average earnings of production workers since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               27.       US real rental price of capital since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical rather countercyclical as the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical rather procyclical as the model predicts.
               28.       An example of a temporary change in technology would be:
a.         a new discovery.         c.         a harvest failure.
b.         a new invention.          d.         all of the above.
               29.       An example of a temporary change in technology would be:
a.         a new discovery.         c.         a new invention.
b.         a general strike.           d.         all of the above.
               30.       With a temporary change in technology the model predicts:
a.         the interest rate will be procyclical.    c.         a higher interest rate will motivate households to increase current real saving.
b.         a lower interest rate will motivate households to  increase current real consumption.           d.         all of the above.
               31.       With a temporary change in technology the model predicts:
a.         the interest rate will be procyclical.    c.         a higher interest rate will motivate households to decrease current real saving.
b.         a lower interest rate will motivate households to decrease current real consumption.           d.         all of the above.
               32.       With a temporary change in technology, we would expect:
a.         the income effect of consumption to be larger.          c.         the intertemporal substitution effect on consumption to be larger.
b.         the income effect of consumption to be smaller.        d.         the intertemporal substitution effect on consumption to be larger.
               33.       With a temporary positive change in technology we would expect real current consumption:
a.         to increase a lot.          c.         to remain unchanged.
b.         to decrease a lot.         d.         to either increase or decrease a little.
               34.       With a temporary change in technology, A, we expect little change in consumption because:
a.         the income effect on consumption is larger.   c.         the intertemporal-substitution effect is larger.
b.         the income effect on consumption is smaller.             d.         the intertemporal-substitution effect is smaller.
               35.       The model predicts that an economic expansion caused by a  temporary increase in technology, A, would lead to:
a.         high real GDP and investment.           c.         low real GDP and investment.
b.         low real GDP and high real investment.         d.         high real GDP and low real investment.
               36.       Temporary changes in technology, A, conflict with the data in that:
a.         investment is clearly acyclical.            c.         the wage rate is clearly countercyclical.
b.         consumption is clearly procyclical.     d.         all of the above.
               37.       A higher real wage:
a.         makes consumption more expensive.  c.         makes leisure less expensive.
b.         makes it a worse deal for households to work an extra hour. d.         makes leisure more expensive.
               38.       A higher real wage:
a.         increases the income of households inducing them to work more.    c.         increases the income of households inducing them to work less.
b.         decreases the income of households inducing them to work more.   d.         decreases the income of households inducing them to work less.
               39.       The overall effect of a higher real wage is:
a.         to increase labor as the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.            c.         to decrease labor as the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.
b.         ambiguous on labor as the income and substitution effect work against each other.             d.         ambiguous because the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.
               40.       We expect that an increase in real wages will:
a.         increase labor supply, if temporary.    c.         increase labor supply, whether permanent or temporary.
b.         increase labor supply, if permanent.    d.         reduce labor supply, whether permanent or temporary.
               41.       An increase in the interest rate induces worker to:
a.         work more in the current period and less in the future.          c.         work less in the current period and more in the future.
b.         work more in the current period and in the future.     d.         work less in the current period and in the future.
               42.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         future consumption cheaper.   c.         current consumption more expensive.
b.         future leisure cheaper. d.         all of the above.
               43.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         future consumption and leisure more expensive.        c.         future consumption and leisure cheaper.
b.         future consumption cheaper and future leisure more expensive.        d.         future consumption more expensive and future leisure cheaper.
               44.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         current consumption and leisure more expensive.      c.         current consumption and leisure cheaper.
b.         current consumption cheaper and current. leisure more expensive.    d.         current consumption more expensive and current leisure cheaper.
               45.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         current consumption and future leisure more expensive.        c.         current consumption and future leisure cheaper.
b.         current consumption cheaper and future. leisure more expensive.     d.         current consumption more expensive and future leisure cheaper.
               46.       Intertemporal substitution effects motivate households to:
a.         supply more labor when the wage rate is temporarily low.     c.         supply less labor when the wage rate is temporarily low.
b.         supply more labor when the wage rate is permanently low.   d.         supply more labor when the wage rate is permanently low.
               47.       In the US since 1964 total hours worked and employment have been:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               48.       The measure of labor productivity used in the popular media is:
a.         Y/L      c.         procyclical.
b.         average product of labor.        d.         all of the above.
               49.       In the model with an upward sloping supply curve of labor and increase demand for labor due to a positive technological, A, change:
a.         increases employment and the real wage.      c.         decreases employment and the real wage.
b.         decreases employment and increases the real wage.   d.         decreases employment and increases the real wage.
               50.       When the labor supply of households is allowed to slope upward:
a.         the model predictions match the observed data that employment and real wages are countercyclical.         c.            the model predictions do not match the observed data that employment and real wages are procyclical.
b.         the model predictions do not match the observed data that employment and real wages are countercyclical.            d.         the model predictions match the observed data that employment and real wages are procyclical.
               51.       The most important feature of U.S. real GDP in the post-World War II era most likely is
a.         the overall upward trend.        c.         the large fluctuations relative to trend.
b.         the high standard deviation from trend.         d.         the many recessions related to politics.
  ��            52.       The equilibrium business cycle model, unlike the long-run Solow growth model, assumes that
a.         changes in capital are important.         c.         the interest rate always rises.
b.         changes in capital are insignificant.    d.         the cyclical growth in GDP is positive.
               53.       Suppose that the economy suffers a major natural disaster.  The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the interest rate will be
a.         unchanged.      c.         relatively low.
b.         relatively high.            d.         greater than the return on capital.
               54.       Suppose that the economy suffers a major natural disaster.  The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the real rental price of capital will be
a.         unchanged.      c.         relatively low.
b.         relatively high.            d.         greater than the return on capital.
               55.       According to the equilibrium business-cycle model, a major improvement in competitiveness in a nation’s economy will affect the real wage in which way?
a.         The real wage will be unchanged.       c.         The real wage will be relatively low.
b.         The real wage cannot be predicted.    d.         The real wage will be relatively high..
               56.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology causes
a.         an economic expansion.          c.         a trend level of GDP.
b.         a recession.      d.         an economic shock.
               57.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an economic expansion typically starts with
a.         an improvement in the level of technology.    c.         a decline in the level of technology
b.         an increase in the stock of capital.      d.         a decrease in the stock of capital.
               58.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession typically starts with
a.         an improvement in the level of technology.    c.         a decline in the level of technology
b.         an increase in the stock of capital.      d.         a decrease in the stock of capital.
               59.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low real wage and relatively high real rental price of capital.      c.         a relatively high real wage and relatively low real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively low real wage and real rental price of capital.      d.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.
               60.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low interest rate and relatively high real rental price of capital.   c.         a relatively high interest rate and relatively low real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.     d.         a relatively low interest rate and real rental price of capital.
               61.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an economic expansion would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low real wage and relatively high real rental price of capital.      c.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively low real wage and real rental price of capital.      d.         a relatively high real wage and relatively low real rental price of capital.
               62.       Which of the following variables is procyclical, according to the equilibrium business-cycle model?
a.         the real wage rate        c.         the real rental rate on capital
b.         the real interest rate     d.         all of the above
               63.       Which of the following variables is countercyclical, according to the equilibrium business-cycle model?
a.         the real wage rate        c.         the real rental rate on capital
b.         the real interest rate     d.         none of the above
               64.       The equilibrium real-business cycle model predicts that labor productivity will be
a.         procyclical.      c.         acyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         indeterminate.
               65.       The measure known as total hours worked
a.         multiplies employment by 40. c.         divides employment by 24.
b.         divides employment by the average wage rate.          d.         multiplies employment by the average weekly hours worked per employee.
   SHORT ANSWER
             1.         If there is a positive technological change, what happens in the labor market?
               2.         What does the model predict about investment when technology increases and why and what do the data show about investment in the US?
              3.         What happens to consumption when there is a permanent and temporary increase in technology, A, and why?
              4.         What is the relationship between real GDP and the cyclical part of GDP?
              5.         What happens in the model, if a temporary technology change increase real wages temporarily?
              6.         What does the real business-cycle model predict will be the relationship between an economic expansion and the real rental price of capital?
  Chapter 9
 TRUE/FALSE
             1.         When the capital utilization rate,  , is added to the model the interest rate becomes countercyclical.
              2.        
The higher the capital utilization rate, , the greater the depreciation rate of capital,  .
              3.         An increase in unemployment insurance payments decreases effective real income while unemployed.
              4.         The duration of unemployment is the number unemployed divided by the labor force.
              5.         Unemployment will exist in an market clearing model, if it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.
              6.         An increase in the technology level leads to an outward shift of the demand curve for capital services.
              7.         An increase in the technology level leads to an increase in the market-clearing real rental price of capital.
              8.         When a variable capital utilization rate is added to the Barro model, the model predicts that the capital utilization rate will be countercyclical.
              9.         GDP can rise when a decrease in technology leads to an increase in the capital utilization rate.
              10.       The natural rate of unemployment in an economy occurs when the job separation rate equals zero.
    MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         The capital utilization rate is:
a.         the rate capital wears out in a particular period.         c.         the percentage of capital used in production.
b.         the depreciation rate.  d.         all of the above.
               2.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP increases.            c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) increases.
b.         machines are in use more hours per period.    d.         all of the above.
               3.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP decreases.           c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) increases.
b.         machines are in use fewer hours per period.   d.         all of the above.
               4.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP decreases.           c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) decreases.
b.         machines are in use more hours per period.    d.         all of the above.
               5.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP increases.            c.         (hour per period)•(number of machines) decreases.
b.         machines are in use fewer hours per period.   d.         all of the above.
               6.         When we allow a capital utilization rate,  , less than 100%, then the rate of return form owning capital becomes:
a.         (R/P) - .          c.         (R/P)• -  .
b.         (R/P)• -  ( ).    d.         (R/P) -  ( ).
               7.         An owner of capital might set their capital utilization rate below 100% because:
a.         the depreciation rate goes up with the capital utilization rate.           c.         to make time available for maintaining their capital.
b.         machines wear out faster when used more intensively.          d.         all of the above.
               8.         The optimal capital utilization rate,  , is that    where:
a.         (R/P)• -  ( ) is maximized.      c.         (R/P)•  >  ( )
b.         (R/P)• =  ( )    d.         (R/P)•  <  ( )
               9.         the net real income from supplying capital services is:
a.         (R/P)• K -  ( )K.          c.          ( )K - (R/P)•
b.         (R/P)• K +  ( ).            d.         (R/P)• K •  ( )K
               10.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise the user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         operating at inconvenient times.         c.         operating when complementary services like transporters are unavailable or more expensive.
b.         paying overtime to employees operating the machines.          d.         all of the above.
               11.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         operating at inconvenient times.         c.         less highway congestion.
b.         off-peak utility prices. d.         all of the above.
               12.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         less highway congestion.        c.         operating when complementary services like transportation are unavailable or more expensive.
b.         off peak utility prices. d.         all of the above.
               13.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         less highway congestion.        c.         off peak utility prices.
b.         paying overtime to employees operating the machines.          d.         all of the above.
               14.       GDP rises can rise in an expansion due to:
a.         an increase in technology, A, directly increasing GDP.         c.         an increase in technology, A, causing an increase in the capital utilization rate, the quantity of capital services and GDP.
b.         an increase in technology, A, causing an increase in labor, L and GDP.        d.         all of the above.
               15.       The model predicts the capital utilization rate, , is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               16.       The model predicts that with a negative shock to technology, the capital utilization rate,  , will:
a.         rise as GDP rises.        c.         rise as GDP falls.
b.         fall as GDP falls.         d.         fall as GDP rises.
               17.       After the capital utilization rate,   , is included in the model, the interest rate:
a.         is still procyclical.        c.         becomes procyclical.
b.         is still countercyclical.             d.         becomes countercyclical.
               18.       The US data from 1948 to 2006 shows the capital utilization rate,  , is:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical the opposite the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical the opposite as the model predicts.
               19.       The model predicts that with a positive shock to technology the capital utilization rate,  , will
a.         fall as GDP falls.         c.         rise as GDP rises.
b.         fall as GDP rises.        d.         rise as GDP falls.
               20.       If the rental price of capital increases, then the capital utilization rate,  ,:
a.         also increases.  c.         remains the same.
b.         decreases.        d.         depends on whether the substitution rate is greater than the income effect.
               21.       The unemployment rate is:
a.         the number of workers in the labor force unemployed divided by the number of workers employed.         c.            the number of workers in the labor force unemployed divided by the labor force.
b.         the number of workers employed divide by the number of workers in the labor force unemployed.            d.            the labor force divided by the number of workers in the labor force unemployed.
               22.       The vacancy rate in the labor market is:
a.         the number of job openings divided by the number of unemployed people in the labor force.         c.         the ratio of open jobs to filled jobs.
b.         the number of job openings divided by the number of workers in the labor force.   d.         the ratio of open jobs to the total number of jobs that employers want occupied.
               23.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the number of unemployed workers in the labor force is:
a.         5 million.         c.         2 million.
b.         3 million.         d.         none of the above.
               24.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the number of vacancies is:
a.         5 million.         c.         2 million.
b.         3 million.         d.         none of the above.
               25.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the unemployment rate is:
a.         3%.      c.         5.3%.
b.         5%.      d.         none of the above.
               26.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, vacancy rate is:
a.         5%.      c.         3.1%.
b.         3.2%.   d.         3%.
               27.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 94 million people employed, there are 99 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the vacancy rate is:
a.         5%.      c.         5.3%
b.         5.1%    d.         1%
               28.       One minus the unemployment rate, 1 - u, is:
a.         the vacancy rate.         c.         the employment rate.
b.         the labor force.            d.         the level of employment.
               29.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         there are frictions in the labor market.            c.         we allow for differences among workers and jobs.
b.         it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.    d.         all of the above.
               30.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         the labor market is in disequilibrium.  c.         we allow for differences among workers and jobs.
b.         we allow capital utilization of less than 100%.           d.         all of the above.
               31.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         there are frictions in the labor market.            c.         the labor market is in equilibrium.
b.         the labor supply curve is upward sloping.       d.         all of the above.
               32.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         all workers are identical.         c.         the labor supply curve is upward sloping.
b.         it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.    d.         all of the above.
               33.       A worker will accept a job offer,  if the real wage offer is above:
a.         the worker’s effective real income when unemployed,  .       c.         the worker’s reservation wage.
b.         the wage the worker earned in their last job.  d.         the average wage in the economy.
               34.       An increase in a worker’s effective real income while unemployed, , will cause the worker’s:
a.         real wage offers to increase.   c.         real reservation wage to increase.
b.         real wage offers to decrease.  d.         real reservation wage to decrease.
               35.       We expect that an increase in the effective real income while unemployed  ,
a.         will reduce the job-finding rate.         c.         increase real wage offers.
b.         will increase the job-finding rate.       d.         decrease real wage offers.
               36.       A decrease in workers’ effective real incomes while unemployed,  , will:
a.         lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment.          c.         raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment.
b.         lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.      d.         raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.
               37.       A negative shock to productivity, A, will:
a.         lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment.          c.         raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment.
b.         lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.      d.         raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.
               38.       Job separations can be due to:
a.         an adverse shock to the firm’s production function.  c.         a change in a worker’s circumstances such as changing locations.
b.         the job being temporary from the start like a seasonal job.     d.         all of the above.
               39.       Job separations can be due to:
a.         a positive shock to the firm’s production function.    c.         a change in a worker’s circumstances such as changing locations.
b.         an increase in technology.       d.         all of the above.
               40.       Job separations can be caused by:
a.         an adverse shock to the firm’s production function.  c.         increased technology, A.
b.         foreign competition.    d.         all of the above.
               41.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is the unemployment rate:
a.         where job findings equal job separations.       c.         the job separation rate equals the job finding rate.
b.         job findings are maximized.    d.         job separations are minimized.
               42.       If the job separation rate is 0.02 and the job finding rate is 0.3, then the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         6.25%  c.         6.67%
b.         15%     d.         none of the above.
               43.       If the job separation rate is 0.03 and the job finding rate is 0.7, then the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         4.2%    c.         23.3%
b.         4.1%    d.         none of the above.
               44.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         positively related to that job separations rate.            c.         fixed.
b.         zero.    d.         positively related to the job finding rate.
               45.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         negatively related to that job separations rate.           c.         fixed.
b.         zero.    d.         negatively related to the job finding rate.
               46.       In US data vacancies from 1954 to 2006 as measure by the help-wanted index are:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical the opposite the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical the opposite the model predicts.
               47.       Discouraged workers are:
a.         those that are unemployed.     c.         those who have dropped out of the labor force.
b.         those that are underemployed.            d.         those who are under paid.
               48.       The job-finding rate is:
a.         the number of hires per month divided by the number unemployed.             c.         the number of hires per month divided by the unemployment rate.
b.         the number of hires per month divided by the number employed.     d.         the number of hires per month divided by the employment rate.
               49.       The US data from December 2000 to February 2006 shows that the job finding rate is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               50.       The US data from December 2000 to February 2006 shows that the job separation rate is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               51.       Owners of capital choose the utilization rate to
a.         maximize their net real income from supplying capital services.        c.         minimize their net real income from supplying capital services.
b.         maximize their net real costs from supplying capital services.            d.         minimize their net real rental payments from supplying capital services.
               52.       When the Barro model allows for variable capital utilization rates, the result is that an increase in the technology level causes
a.         a decrease in the capital utilization rate.         c.         a decrease in the quantity of capital services.
b.         an increase in the capital utilization rate.        d.         no change in the quantity of capital services.
               53.       When the technology level increases,
a.         the demand for capital services shifts to the left.       c.         the demand for capital services shifts to the right.
b.         the supply of capital services shifts to the right.         d.         both (b) and (c).
               54.       When the technology level increases, the market for capital services
a.         fails to clear.    c.         clears at the original real rental price.
b.         clears at a lower real rental price.        d.         clears at a higher real rental price.
               55.       When the technology level increases, the market for capital services
a.         clears at a higher quantity of capital services. c.         clears at the original quantity of capital services.
b.         clears at a lower quantity of capital services.  d.         fails to clear.
               56.       On a graph of the capital services market, the supply of capital services
a.         slopes down because an increase in the real rental price raises the capital utilization rate.    c.         slopes up because an increase in the real rental price lowers the capital utilization rate.
b.         slopes up because an increase in the real rental price raises the capital utilization rate.          d.         slopes down because an increase in the real rental price lowers the capital utilization rate.
               57.       On a graph of the capital services market, the demand for capital services shifts out when
a.         the technology level decreases, which increases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.   c.         the technology level increases, which increases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.
b.         the technology level decreases, which decreases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.   d.         the technology level increases, which decreases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.
               58.       U.S. data show that the labor force is
a.         strongly countercyclical.         c.         strongly procyclical.
b.         acyclical.         d.         weakly procyclical.
               59.       U.S. data show that the employment rate is
a.         strongly procyclical.    c.         strongly countercyclical.
b.         acyclical.         d.         weakly countercyclical.
               60.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         increase a person’s effective real income while unemployed.            c.         have no effect on a person’s effective real income while unemployed.
b.         decrease a person’s effective real income while unemployed.           d.         either (a) or (c).
               61.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         decrease a person’s duration of unemployment.         c.         have no effect on a person’s duration of unemployment.
b.         increase a person’s duration of unemployment.          d.         either (a) or (c).
               62.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         increase the job finding rate.   c.         decrease the job-finding rate.
b.         have no effect on the job-finding rate.           d.         either (a) or (b).
               63.       The job-separation rate is likely to be high among workers who are
a.         inexperienced and difficult to evaluate.         c.         in industries where there are frequent shocks to product demand.
b.         likely to experience changes in job preferences.         d.         all of the above.
               64.       At the natural rate of unemployment,
a.         the job-separation rate is positive.       c.         the job-finding rate equals zero.
b.         the job-separation rate equals zero.     d.         both (b) and (c).
               65.       At the natural rate of unemployment,
a.         the job-separation and job-finding rates are each zero.          c.         tthe job-separation and job-finding rates are both negative.
b.         the job-separation and job-finding rates are both positive.     d.         the job-separation rate is zero and the job-finding rate is positive.
   SHORT ANSWER
             1.         How does the capital utilization enter the production function?
              2.         How does the capital utilization rate affect the depreciation rate and why?
              3.         How can there be unemployment in a market clearing model?
              4.         How does the Barro model define the natural rate of unemployment and what does the natural rate of unemployment depend on.
              5.         What is the reservation wage?
              6.         How does an increase in technology affect the market-clearing real rental price of capital services?
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ECO 405 Week 4 Quiz – Strayer
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
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 Quiz 3 Chapter 4 and 5
 Chapter 04
 Pollution Problems: Must We Foul Our Own Nests?
  Multiple Choice Questions  
1. Pollution  A. Like Air And Water Pollution Became An Issue In The U.S. During The 1960's B. Tends To Be Worse In More Populated Than In Less Populated Areas C. Occurs Because Large Portions Of The Environment Are Owned By Polluters D. Increases The Cost Of Producing All Goods E. Issues Are Represented In All Of The Above Answers
 2. The Level Of Pollution Increases When  A. A Person Breathes B. Wastes Are Dumped Into The Environment C. Wastes Are Dumped Into The Environment At A Higher Rate Than Wastes Are Recycled D. New Industrial Plant Opens E. Recycling Increases
 3. Which Of The Following Is A Service Provided By The Environment?  A. Use As A Habitat B. Provision Of Amenities C. Provision Of Raw Materials D. Waste Disposal E. All Of The Above
 4. Which Of The Following Best Describes Why Pollution Exists In The Environment?  A. The Environment Has No Capacity To Recycle Waste B. All Materials Take A Very Long Time To Recycle In The Environment C. No Waste Can Be Completely Recycled D. Recycling Processes Fail To Prevent Wastes From Accumulating In The Environment E. The Environment's Capacity To Recycle Exceeds The Rate Of Waste Disposal
 5. Human Production Processes Do Not Include Which Of The Following Services?  A. Mineral Deposits, Such As Coal And Iron B. Renewable Resources, Like Timber And Plant Products C. Technological Advances In Production D. Recycling Of Waste Materials, Such As Chemical Wastes E. All Of The Above
 6. Marginal Private Cost (Mpc) Always Includes:  A. The Price Of A Good In The Market B. The Extra Costs Of Production Of One More Unit Of A Good C. The Additional Benefits Received By Consumers From The Consumption Of The Good D. The Costs Imposed On Society From Pollution E. The Expenditures By Government To Control Negative Externalities
 7. The Term "Marginal Social Benefit" Means  A. Benefits That Are Just Above The Margin Of Being Zero B. The Entire Benefits Obtainable From The Activity C. That Part Of The Benefits Covered By The Costs Of Carrying On The Activity D. The Change In Total Social Benefits Per Unit Change In The Amount Of The Activity E. The Benefits Of Minimal Quality Goods And Services
 8. If All Benefits From Consuming A Good Go To Consumers, The Demand Curve Is The Same As The  A. Mpc Curve B. Msc Curve C. Mpb Curve D. Supply Curve E. Benefit Curve
 9. When There Are No Externalities, Equilibrium In A Market  A. Maximizes Social Well-Being B. Equates Quantity Supplied And Quantity Demanded C. Equates Msb And Msc D. Equates Mpb And Mpc E. Does All Of The Above
  10. When The Cost Of An Action Falls On Other Than The Person (Or Persons) Responsible For The Action, Which Of The Following Exists?  A. Positive Externality B. Negative Externality C. Externality In Consumption D. Externality In Production E. External Cost
 11. When A Benefit Of An Action Falls On Other Than The Person (Or Persons) Responsible For The Action, Which Of The Following Exists?  A. Positive Externality B. Negative Externality C. Externality In Consumption D. Externality In Production E. External Cost
 12. When The Marginal Private Benefit Of An Activity Does Not Equal The Marginal Social Benefit, Which Of The Following Exists?  A. Positive Externality B. Negative Externality C. Externality In Consumption D. Externality In Production E. External Cost
 13. When The Marginal Private Cost Of An Activity Does Not Equal The Marginal Social Cost, Which Of The Following Exists?  A. Positive Externality B. Negative Externality C. Externality In Consumption D. Externality In Production E. External Cost
  14. Which Of The Following Creates A Positive Externality In Consumption?  A. Polluting A River B. Playing Loud Music C. Vaccinations D. Reducing The Cost Of Producing Of Another Good E. Strip Mining
 15. Which Of The Following Creates A Positive Externality In Production?  A. Polluting A River B. Playing Loud Music C. Vaccinations D. Reducing The Cost Of Producing Of Another Good E. Strip Mining
 16. Which Of The Following Creates A Negative Externality In Consumption?  A. Polluting A River B. Playing Loud Music C. Vaccinations D. Reducing The Cost Of Producing Of Another Good E. Strip Mining
 17. People Have An Incentive To Pollute When  A. There Is Collective Consumption Of An Environmental Service B. No One Has Property Rights To The Environment C. It Is Less Expensive To Pollute Than To Clean Up D. The Mpc Of Polluting < Mpc Of Cleanup E. All Of The Above
 18. As Additional Units Of Pollution Control Are Added, At Some Point Each Additional Unit Adds  A. Less Than The Previous Unit To Total Benefits B. More Than The Previous Unit To Total Benefits C. Less Than The Previous Unit To Total Costs D. More To Total Benefits Than To Total Costs E. Less To Total Costs Than Total Benefits
  19. When Mpc Is Less Than Msc,  A. Firms Will Tend To Produce More Than Is Socially Optimal B. The Price Of The Product Will Be Higher Than The Competitive Price C. The Firm Must Be A Monopolist D. The Firm Will Produce Less Than Is Socially Optimal E. There Are Positive Externalities In Production
 20. Complete Elimination Of Pollution Is Economically Rational When  A. Pollution Is Associated With Illness In Humans B. For Each Unit Of Pollution, The Cost Of Clean-Up Is Less Than The Benefit From Its Elimination C. The Pollution Will Likely Affect Future Generations D. Msc Of Cleanup < Msb Of Cleanup E. None Of The Above; Complete Elimination Is Never Rational
 21. Pollution Should Be Completely Eliminated  A. When The Marginal Social Benefit Of Control Is Greater Than Or Equal To The Marginal Social Cost Of Control For All Units Of Pollution B. When The Marginal Social Cost Of Control Is Zero C. At No Time, From An Economic Perspective D. All Of The Above E. (A) And (B)
 22. The Optimal Level Of Pollution Control Occurs When  A. Msb Of Control Equals Msc B. Pollution Is Zero C. Msb Of Control Just Exceeds Msc D. Msb Of Control Is Less Than Msc E. None Of The Above
 23. The Market Output Level Tends To Be Socially Optimal When  A. Demand Equals Supply In The Market B. All Costs And Benefits Are Private And Msb=Msc C. There Is Neither A Shortage Nor A Surplus Of The Product D. There Are Externalities In Production E. There Are Externalities In Consumption
 24. Costs Incurred By The Producer For The Use Of Self-Owned Resources Are Called  A. Implicit Costs B. Explicit Costs C. Accounting Costs D. Total Costs E. Marginal Costs
 25. Costs Incurred By The Producer To Buy Or Hire Resources Are Called  A. Implicit Costs B. Explicit Costs C. Opportunity Costs D. Total Costs E. Marginal Costs
 26. Another Term For Implicit Cost Is  A. Out-Of-Pocket Costs B. Explicit Costs C. Opportunity Cost D. Total Cost E. Marginal Cost
 27. Payment By A Firm To Hire A Worker Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Implicit Cost B. Explicit Cost C. Opportunity Cost D. Total Cost E. Marginal Cost
 28. An Upstream Paper Mill Pollutes Water Used By A Downstream Water Bottling Plant, Forcing The Latter To Clean The Water It Uses. Which Of The Following Is  ?  A. Both Will Over-Produce B. The Paper Mill Will Under-Produce And The Bottling Plant Will Over-Produce C. The Paper Mill Will Over-Produce And The Bottling Plant Will Under-Produce D. Both Will Under-Produce E. Neither Will Over-Produce Or Under-Produce
29. Which Of The Following Is A Factor Leading To Pollution?  A. People Are Inherently Dirty B. There Are Property Rights To The Environment C. The Environment Is Collectively Consumed D. The Law Of Increasing Returns E. All Of The Above
  Questions 30 - 34 Refer To The Graph Below.   
  30. Given The Ppc Tt1, The Cost Of Increasing Pollution Control From C1 To C2 Is  A. A1a2 Dollars' Worth Of Other Goods And Services B. Q1q2 Dollars' Worth Of Other Goods And Services C. C1c2 Dollars' Worth Of Pollution Control D. Tq1, Dollars' Worth Of Other Goods And Services E. Unable To Be Determined Without Additional Information
 31. Which Of The Following Could Explain A Shift In The Production Possibilities Curve From Tt1 To Tt2?  A. Over-Utilization Of Pollution Control Activities B. Better Techniques Of Pollution Control C. Higher Prices For Other Goods And Services D. Increased Benefits From Pollution Control E. Better Technology For Producing Other Goods And Services
 32. A Technological Advance That Improves Pollution Control Methods Would Cause Which Of The Following Changes On The Graph? A Movement From  A. A1 To A2 B. C1 To C2 C. Q1 To Q2 D. Tt1 To Tt2 E. 0 To C2
 33. Assuming That The Economy Is Operating On The Ppc Tt1, The Benefit Of Increasing Pollution Is Shown On The Graph As A Movement From  A. A2 To A1 B. C2 To C1 C. Q2 To Q1 D. Tt2 To Tt1 E. C2 To 0
 34. Operating At Which Point On The Ppc Tt1 Will Result In The Most Environmental Degradation?  A. T B. T1 C. T2 D. A1 E. A2
  Questions 35 - 39 Refer To The Graph Below.
35. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D2 And S2. If There Are Negative Social Spillovers Associated With The Production Of Z,  A. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Supply Curve Toward S1 B. An Output Greater Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation C. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Demand Curve Toward D1 D. An Output Smaller Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation E. Both (A) And (D)
 36. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D2 And S2. If There Are Positive Social Spillovers Associated With The Production Of Z:  A. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Supply Curve Toward S1 B. An Output Greater Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation C. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Demand Curve Toward D1 D. An Output Smaller Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation E. Both (A) And (D)
 37. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D1 And S1 And There Are Positive Social Spillovers Associated With The Consumption Of Z. Which Curve Could Represent The Msb Curve For Z?  A. D1 B. D2 C. S1 D. S2 E. None Of The Above
 38. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D1 And S1 And There Are Positive Social Spillovers Associated With The Production Of Z. Which Curve Could Represent The Msc Curve For Z?  A. D1 B. D2 C. S1 D. S2 E. None Of The Above
 39. If "Z" Is Pollution Control, Which Of The Following Shifts Illustrates The Effect On The Market For Pollution Control If New Technology To Control Pollution Is Developed?  A. D1 To D2 B. D2 To D1 C. S1 To S2 D. S2 To S1 E. None Of The Above
  Questions 40 - 44 Refer To The Graph Below.   
40. If The Discharge Of The Firm Is Q1 Units Per Day And A Tax Of T1 Per Unit Is Placed On Polluted Discharge, The Firm Will  A. Clean All Of Its Discharge Of Wastes B. Clean None Of Its Discharge Of Wastes C. Spend A0b0 Dollars On Cleaning The Discharge D. Spend A0q0 Dollars On Cleaning The Discharge E. (A) And (D)
 41. A Tax Of T1 Per Unit On Polluted Discharge Will Induce The Firm To  A. Clean Its Discharge Up To Q1 Units Per Day Rather Than Pay The Tax B. Pay The Tax Rather Than Clean Discharge Up To Q1 Units Per Day C. Clean Its Discharge Exceeding Q1 Units Per Day Rather Than Pay The Tax D. Pay The Tax On All Units E. (A) And (D)
 42. A Tax Of More Than T1 Per Unit On Polluted Discharge Will Induce The Firm To Clean Up  A. Q1 B. More Than Q1 C. Q D. More Than Q But Less Than Q1 E. Zero
 43. A Tax Of M0 Per Unit On Polluted Discharge Will Induce The Firm To Clean Up  A. Q1 B. More Than Q1 C. Q D. More Than Q But Less Than Q1 E. Zero
 44. Suppose The Current Tax Is T1 And The Government Wishes To Allow Less Pollution. It Should  A. Raise The Tax Above T1 B. Lower The Tax Below T1 C. Shift The Mpc Curve To The Left D. Shift The Mpc Curve To The Right E. Do None Of The Above
 Questions 45 - 49 Are Based On The Following Information. In A Small City Located On A Lake, The Raw Sewage Of The City Is Dumped Directly Into The Lake. This Has Been A Source Of Distress For Citizens Who Like To Swim, Fish, And Water Ski. A Study Has Been Instituted To Determine What Value The Citizens Place On Pollution Control, And The Results Are Listed In The Following Table. Costs Of Pollution Control Are Also Listed.   
 45. The Marginal Social Benefit Of The Sixth Unit Of Pollution Control Is  A. $495,000 B. $180,000 C. $80,000 D. $60,000 E. $40,000
 46. The Marginal Social Cost Of The Fourth Unit Of Pollution Control Is  A. Zero B. $30,000 C. $90,000 D. $100,000 E. $120,000
 47. At The Economically Efficient Level Of Control, Msb  A. Equals Msc B. Equals $30,000 C. Is Lower Than At One Unit Less Pollution Control D. Is Higher Than At One Unit More Pollution Control E. Is All Of The Above
 48. As The Units Of Pollution Control Increase, The Msb Of Controlling Pollution Is  A. Increasing B. Decreasing C. Constant D. Harder To Define E. Impossible To Determine
 49. The Economically Efficient Level Of Pollution Control Is  A. 10 Units B. 9 Units C. 8 Units D. 4 Units E. 2 Units
  Questions 50 - 54 Refer To The Graph Below.  
 50. Which Curve Is The Firm's Mpb Curve?  A. D B. S C. X1 D. X2 E. None Of The Above
 51. Given That The Firm’s Demand And Supply Curves Are D And S, Respectively, Which Curve Is The Msc Curve For The Polluting Firm's Product?  A. D B. S C. X1 D. X2 E. None Of The Above
 52. What Is The Equilibrium Quantity Of The Polluting Firm's Product In A Market With No Pollution Regulation?  A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined
 53. What Is The Efficient Quantity Of The Polluting Firm's Product?  A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined
 54. The Value Of Well-Being Lost Due To Over-Production Of The Polluting Firm's Product Is Equal To Area  A. Acd B. Abd C. Deg D. Dgf E. This Cannot Be Shown In The Diagram
  Questions 55-59 Refer To The Graph Below.   
 55. Which Curve Is The Msc Curve For The Water-Using Firm's Product?  A. D B. S C. X1 D. X2 E. None Of The Above
 56. What Is The Quantity Of The Firm's Product In A Market With No Pollution Regulation?  A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined
 57. What Is The Efficient Quantity Of The Water-Using Firm's Product?  A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined
 58. The Value Of Well-Being Lost Due To Under-Production Of The Water-Using Firm's Product Is Equal To Area  A. Acd B. Abd C. Bed D. Deg E. Dgf
 59. Social Well-Being Would Be Enhanced If Output Of The Water-Using Firm Were To  A. Increase From The Equilibrium Output B. Decrease From The Equilibrium Output C. Be Equal To The Equilibrium Output D. Be Greater Than Q3 E. Be Less Than Q1
 60. Those Who Suffer From Pollution May Find It To Their Advantage To  A. Have The Government Enact Legislation Compelling The Polluters To Take Antipollution Measures B. Bribe The Polluters To Control Their Pollution C. Have The Government Tax Pollution At A Rate That Increases With The Amount Of Pollution Generated D. Do All Of The Above E. Do None Of The Above
 61. The Efficient Level Of Pollution Is Zero Only If The  A. Marginal Cost Of Pollution Control Is Zero B. Marginal Benefit Of Pollution Control Is Zero C. Mpb Of Pollution Control Equals Msb D. Mpc Of Pollution Control Equals Msc E. Mpc Of Pollution Control Equals Mpb
 62. Requiring Automobiles To Pass Emissions Tests Before Being Allowed On The Road Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Direct Pollution Control B. Indirect Pollution Control C. Pollution Tax D. Market Solution To Pollution E. Positive Externality In Consumption
 63. If A Pollution Tax Is Placed On A Firm Emitting Pollution, The Firm Will Pay The Tax, Rather Than Reduce Its Emissions, As Long As The Tax Is  A. Above Its Mpc Of Pollution Control B. Below Its Mpc Of Pollution Control C. Above The Msc Of Pollution Control D. Below The Msc Of Pollution Control E. Reasonable
 64. If A Pollution Tax Is Placed On A Firm Emitting Pollution, The Firm Will Treat Pollution, Rather Than Pay The Tax, As Long As The Tax Is  A. Above Its Mpc Of Pollution Control B. Below Its Mpc Of Pollution Control C. Above The Msc Of Pollution Control D. Below The Msc Of Pollution Control E. Reasonable
 65. In A Pollution Rights Market,  A. Firms Buy Licenses To Pollute B. Firms Sell Licenses To Pollute C. Environmental Groups Can Reduce Pollution By Buying Licenses To Pollute D. The Government Can Determine The Level Of Pollution By The Number Of Licenses It Issues E. All Of The Above
 66. Pollution Rights Markets  A. Have Been Shown To Work In Theory, But Not In Practice B. Have Never Been Used In The Real World C. Are Used Around The World, But Not In The United States D. Have Been Used To Reduce Sulfur Dioxide Emissions E. Have Not Been Effective In Controlling Sulfur Dioxide Emissions
 67. Direct Or Mandatory Control Imposed By Government On Polluters Presupposes That The Regulatory Body Can  A. Determine What The Desirable Limits Of Pollution Are B. Determine Where The Marginal Costs Of Pollution Are Greatest C. Enforce Standards D. B) And C) E. All Of The Above
 68. An Advantage Of Direct Regulation As A Method Of Controlling Pollution Is That  A. The Optimal Level Of Pollution Control Can Be Easily Determined B. Pollution Reduction Quotas Can Be Varied To Remove Pollution Where It Is Least Costly C. Emission Control Standards Can Be Enforced Readily D. Changes In The Market Are Automatically Reflected In The Regulation E. It Seems Straightforward And Fair
 69. Which Of The Following Approaches Would An Economist Propose To Address Industrial Pollution Of A River?  A. Ban All Dumping Of Pollutants Near Or Into The River B. Limit Each Plant To A Maximum Amount Of Pollutant Emission C. Charge Each Polluter A Fixed Amount For Each Unit Of Pollutant Dumped Into The River D. Direct Pollution Control Regulation E. Command And Control Pollution Regulation
 70. With Tradable Pollution Licenses To Control Pollution, Reductions In Total Pollution  A. Can Be Achieved By Having Government Buy Back Some Of The Licenses B. Can Be Achieved By Having Government Sell More Licenses C. Requires The Government To Buy Back All Existing Licenses And Re-Issue New Licenses D. Cannot Be Achieved E. Is Never Economically Optimal
 71. A Market For Pollution Rights Is An Efficient Approach To Pollution Control Because  A. It Is Cheap To Implement B. It Leads To The Complete Elimination Of Pollution C. It Causes The Pollution To Be Eliminated At The Lowest Cost D. It Is Easy To Enforce E. None Of The Above
 72. Production And Consumption In The Cigarette Market Is Too High Because  A. Producers Do Not Care About The Health Of Their Customers B. Mpc Is Greater Than The Msc C. Mpb Is Greater Than Msb D. Msb Is Greater Than Mpb E. Mpb Is Less Than Msb
 73. When Pollution Is Not Regulated In The Market, Polluting Firms Will  A. Under-Utilize Resources And Charge High Prices B. Under-Utilize Resources And Charge Low Prices C. Use The Appropriate Level Of Resources, But Charge High Prices D. Be Very Profitable E. Over-Utilize Resources And Charge Low Prices
 74. For A Tax On Pollution To Be Effective, It Must Be  A. Placed On The Firm Polluting B. Greater Than The Cost Of Cleaning-Up The Pollution C. Placed On The Consumer D. Less Than The Cost Of Cleaning Up The Pollution E. Set At A Reasonable Rate
 75. Suppose The Government Imposes A Tax On Electric Companies For Each Unit Of Sulfur They Emit. Which Of The Following Would Not Occur?  A. Higher Prices For Electricity B. Lower Prices For Electricity C. Electric Companies Shifting To Low Sulfur Oil D. A Decrease In The Amount Of Electricity Produced E. A Shift To Alternative Energy Resources
 76. If Jim Starts A Landscape Business And Uses A Truck And A Tractor That He Owns To Perform Landscaping Projects, We Can Conclude That  A. The Costs Of The Truck And The Tractor Are Low B. That The Costs Of The Truck And The Tractor Are Explicit Costs C. There Is No Cost To The Business Since He Owns Both The Truck And The Tractor D. That The Costs Associated With Both The Truck And The Tractor Are Implicit Costs E. He Should Ask His Accountant How To Handle The Costs
 77. When Firms Make Decisions About Output And About The Amount Of Pollution That They Produce, Without Government Regulation  A. Firms Only Consider Their Private Benefits And Costs When Making Their Choices B. Firms Choose Not To Pollute Because It's Bad For Their Public Image C. Social Costs Are Always Reflected In The Market Prices Firms Pay For Their Inputs D. Pollution Costs Are Passed On To Consumers In The Form Of Higher Prices E. Government Regulation Is Used Only In Command Economies
 78. The Use Of Pollution Rights Licenses Can Improve Efficiency And Reduce Pollution Since  A. Pollution Rights Licenses Do Not Improve Efficiency Nor Reduce Pollution B. The Licenses Give Environmental Groups Pollution Reducing Permits C. The Cost To Purchase These Licenses Means That Social Costs Are Reflected In The Firm's Costs, Giving The Firm An Incentive To Reduce Pollution When It Is Economically Beneficial D. Such Licenses Improve Efficiency By Pricing Pollution But The Licenses Do Not Reduce Pollution E. There Is No Amount Of Pollution That Is Desirable Or Efficient
   True / False Questions  
79. Pollution Occurs When The Environment Cannot Recycle All The Waste Dumped Into It. 
 80. Air Pollution Did Not Cause Great Concern Until The Last Few Decades. 
 81. Water Pollution Is Measured In Terms Of The Amount Of Toxins In The Water. 
 82. The Level Of Dissolved Oxygen Is An Important Measure Of Water Quality. 
 83. Pollution Is Generated Because Firms Use Inefficient Production Processes. 
 84. Pollution Consists Of Loading The Environment With Wastes That Are Not Completely Recycled, Are Not Recycled Fast Enough, Or Are Not Recycled At All. 
 85. Pollution Results In Resource Misallocation. 
 86. The "Marginal Social Benefit" Of An Economic Activity Is The Benefit That Is Just Above The Margin Of Being Zero. 
 87. If The Marginal Social Cost Of Attaining A Certain Level Of Water Purity Exceeds The Marginal Social Benefit, The Level Of Water Purity Should Be Decreased. 
 88. Net Social Benefits Will Always Be Increased By Increasing Pollution Control If The Marginal Social Benefit Of The Increase In Pollution Control Is Greater Than The Marginal Social Cost Of Additional Control Efforts. 
 89. Pollution Did Not Exist In Any Appreciable Amounts Prior To The Industrial Revolution. 
 90. The Optimum Level Of Pollution Is Zero. 
 91. The Costs Of Pollution Control To A Society Are Measured By The Value Of The Goods And Services That Must Be Given Up To Have The Control. 
 92. Complete Elimination Of Pollution Would Only Make Economic Sense If The Cost To Eliminate The Last Unit Of Pollution Is Less Than The Benefit From Its Elimination. 
 93. The Socially Optimal Level Of Production For Any Good Or Service Is Found Where Mpb=Mpc. 
 94. Deodorant May Be An Example Of A Good For Which Msb > Mpb. 
 95. If The Mpc Of Production Is Less Than The Msc, The Market Will Produce Too Much Of The Product. 
 96. Enjoying The Smell Of Bread Baking From Your Neighbor's House Is An Example Of A Negative Externality. 
 97. If Your Snoring Keeps Your Roommate From Sleeping, You Roommate Is Experiencing A Negative Externality. 
 98. Pollution Is An Example Of A Negative Externality In Consumption. 
 99. Implicit Costs Are Opportunity Costs. 
 100. Explicit Costs Are Equal To The Value Of Self-Owned Resources. 
 101. Implicit Costs Are Also Known As Accounting Costs. 
 102. Direct Controls, Such As Setting Emission Standards For Automobiles, Will Achieve A Pollution Free Environment. 
 103. When A Firm Pollutes, Its Product Will Be Under-Priced And Over-Produced. 
 104. An Increase In A Tax Per Unit Of Polluted Discharge Will Decrease The Amount Of Pollution. 
 105. If Polluters Were Forced To Pay The Full Cost Of Their Activities, The Price Of Goods Produced By Polluting Firms Would Rise. 
 106. Direct Prohibition Of Pollution Has The Disadvantage Of Providing Economic Incentives For Polluters Not To Pollute. 
 107. In The Case Of An Upstream Paper Mill That Pollutes Water Used By A Downstream Power Plant Forcing The Latter To Clean The Water It Uses, The Costs Of Pollution By The Paper Industry Are Borne By Both The Consumers And Producers Of Electricity. 
 108. Whenever Consumers Are Willing To Pay More For An Item Than It Costs To Produce It, It Is Efficient To Expand Output. 
 109. Governmental Regulations Requiring Anti-Pollution Devices On Automobiles Result In A Decrease In The Demand For Automobiles And An Increase In Price. 
 110. Federal Grants Made To State And Local Governments For The Construction Of Sewage Treatment Facilities Encourage Private Industries To Develop Low Pollution Methods Of Production. 
 111. The Optimum Level Of Pollution Control Is Where Marginal Social Benefit Equals Marginal Social Cost. 
 112. Incentives To Pollute Stem From An Absence Of Property Rights In The Environment And From The Collectively Consumed Nature Of Whatever Is Being Polluted. 
 113. A Major Advantage Of Using Taxes To Control Pollution Is That They Provide An Incentive To The Polluter To Seek Improved Ways To Clean Up Discharge. 
 114. The Most Efficient Way To Control Pollution Is Direct Prohibition Of Polluting Activities By The Government. 
 115. Under The Private Property Rights Approach To Pollution Control, The Industry Or Firm That Most "Values" The Right To The Environment Will Control Environmental Services. 
 116. It Is Efficient For Regulatory Bodies To Induce Reduction In Pollution When The Marginal Social Cost Is Lowest, Regardless Of Which Firms Are The Worst Polluters. 
 117. A Pollution Rights Market Can Be An Efficient Method Of Pollution Control. 
 118. When Pollution Rights Markets Are Created, Those Firms Who Can Reduce Pollution Most Cheaply Will Do So. 
 119. When Pollution Rights Markets Are Used, The Overall Level Of Pollution Is Reduced If The Government Sells Additional Licenses. 
 120. The Establishment Of Clearly Defined Property Rights To The Environment Would Lead To An Elimination Of Pollution. 
 121. The Establishment Of Property Rights To The Environment Would Not, On Its Own, Lead To The Optimal Level Of Pollution Control. 
 122. Deodorant Is An Example Of A Collectively Consumed Good. 
 123. Polluting Firms Charge Prices Below What Would Exist Without Pollution. 
 124. The Creation Of A Market For Pollution Rights Eliminates Pollution Where It Is Cheapest To Do So. 
 125. When A Firm Has To Clean Environmental Resources Prior To Using Them, The Consumers Of That Firm's Products Are Charged Higher Prices Than Would Exist In The Absence Of Pollution. 
 126. To Date, There Has Been No Formal Use Of Pollution Rights Markets. 
 127. Enforcement Is A Problem With All Methods Of Pollution Regulation. 
 128. Pollution Regulation Works Well Because Economists, Not Politicians, Are In Charge Of Regulatory Bodies. 
 Chapter 05
 Economics Of Crime And Its Prevention: How Much Is Too Much?
  Multiple Choice Questions  
1. An Immoral Act Is  A. Easy To Define B. Always Illegal C. Different In Different Societies D. Defined Consistently Across The United States E. All Of The Above
 2. Illegal Acts Are  A. Also Immoral B. Ones That Society Has Determined That It Is Better Off Allowing C. Designated As Such By The Criminal Justice System D. Prevented Once A Law Is Passed E. All Of The Above
 3. Aggravated Assault Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Violent Crime B. Crime Against Property C. Illegal Trafficking Of Goods And Services D. "Other" Crime E. None Of The Above
 4. Arson Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Violent Crime B. Crime Against Property C. Illegal Trafficking Of Goods And Services D. "Other" Crime E. None Of The Above
 5. Prostitution Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Violent Crime B. Crime Against Property C. Illegal Trafficking Of Goods And Services D. "Other" Crime E. None Of The Above
 6. Which Of The Following Statements Is Correct?  A. Criminal Acts Are Illegal Acts Whether Or Not Those Acts Are Immoral B. Some Immoral Acts Are Criminal Acts And Some Are Not C. Some Acts Are Criminal Because They Lead To Consequences The Criminal Is Unaware Of D. Some Acts That Might Result In Chaotic Conditions Are Made Criminal By Legislative Bodies E. All Of The Above
 7. Which Of The Following Exists When An Individual Consumes Benefits From A Public Good But Does Not Pay For Its Cost?  A. Free-Riding B. A Negative Externality In Consumption C. A Negative Externality In Production D. Implicit Costs E. Psychic Costs
 8. The Free-Rider Problem Refers To  A. Those Who Receive The Benefits Of A Public Good Without Paying A Part Of Its Cost B. Those Who Ride Public Transportation Without Paying Their Fares C. Those Who Ride In Rodeos And Do Not Win Prizes D. Jockeys Who Are Not Paid E. None Of The Above
 9. Which Of The Following Goods Or Services Is A Public Good?  A. Polio Immunization B. Stamp Collection C. A Smoke Detector D. National Defense E. A Burglar Alarm
 10. Government Can Effectively Remedy The Free-Rider Problem By  A. Requiring All Who Receive The Benefits Of A Public Good Or Service To Pay Appropriate Taxes For It B. Imposing A Tax On Automobiles And All Other Forms Of Transportation C. Eliminating All Forms Of Transportation D. Banning Private Crime Prevention Activities E. None Of The Above
 11. A Characteristic Of A Public Good Or Service Is  A. That No Individual Can Identify Specifically The Part Of It That He Or She Consumes B. Once The Good Is Provided, It Is Difficult Or Impossible To Exclude Anyone From Using It C. If It Is Provided Privately, It Generates A "Free-Rider" Problem D. One Person's Use Does Not Decrease The Quantity Available For Others E. All Of The Above
 12. Which Of The Following Is Most Likely A Public Good?  A. A College Education B. A Smoke Detector C. Smallpox Immunization D. Elementary Education E. Space Exploration
 13. A Group Project Has Been Assigned And Most Of The Work Ends Up Being Produced By Only One Or Two Of The Group's Members. This Is An Example Of  A. The Free-Rider Problem B. Diminishing Marginal Returns C. The Opportunity Cost Principle D. Equimarginal Principle E. An Immoral Act
 14. Immunization For Polio Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Semi Private Good B. Public Good C. Private Good D. Good Which The Market Will Efficiently Produce E. Externality In Production
 15. Which Of The Following Statements Is  ?  A. The Government In A Private Enterprise Economy Confines Its Production Of Goods And Services To Public Goods B. A Major Difference Between Private Enterprise Economic System And A Socialistic Economic System Is That The Government Of The Latter Is Responsible For The Production Of Most Private, As Well As Public And Semi-Private, Goods C. Governments Of Private Enterprise Systems Leave The Bulk Of Private Goods To Be Produced By Private Businesses D. Governments Of Private Enterprise Economies Play A Relatively Important Role In The Provision Of Semi-Private Goods E. None Of The Above
 16. The Costs Of Resources Used In Crime Prevention  A. Are Equal To The Value Those Resources Would Have Provided In Their Best Alternative Use B. Are Equal To The Value Of These Resources In Reducing Crime C. Can Be Approximated By The Expenditures On Criminal Activities D. Both (A) And (C) E. All Of The Above
 17. From An Economic Point Of View, Crime Prevention Activities Should Be Expanded To The Point At Which  A. Their Marginal Social Benefit No Longer Exceeds Their Marginal Social Cost B. All Crime Is Stamped Out C. All Crimes Against Persons Are Eliminated D. Their Total Gross Benefits Are Maximum E. None Of The Above
 18. The Marginal Cost Of A Good Is  A. The Change In Total Product Associated With The Change In Resource Inputs B. The Average Cost Of The Product C. The Total Cost Of The Good Divided By Output D. The Change In Total Cost Per Unit Change In Output E. None Of The Above
 19. According To The Equimarginal Principle, A City's Crime Prevention Budget Should Be Allocated Such That  A. The Last Dollar Spent On Detection And Apprehension Of Criminals Should Yield The Same Addition To People's Benefits As The Last Dollar Spent Determining Guilt Or Innocence And The Last Dollar Spent On Corrections And Punishment B. Total Benefits Of Crime Prevention Are Equal To Total Costs C. Expenditure On Court Services Proceeds Exceed Those On The Police Force Because Services Of A Lawyer Are More Expensive Than Those Of A Policeman Or Policewoman D. The Same Number Of Police Officers Patrol Each Square Block At The Margins Of The City's Residential Area E. The Same Number Of Police Officers Are Used Per Square Block In The City's Suburbs As In Its Downtown Area
 20. Suppose An Auto Worth $25,000 Is Stolen. The Economic Cost Of This Theft, From Society's Point Of View, Does Not Include  A. The $25,000 The Auto Is Worth B. The Value Of The Resources Expended By Society Attempting To Capture The Thief C. The Value Of The Inconvenience Caused To The Owner D. The Cost Of Resources Used To Reduce Car Theft E. All Of The Above
 21. Suppose The Total Social Benefits Of Crime Protection Increase From $800,000 To $900,000 And Total Social Costs Increase From $650,000 To $800,000, With The Addition Of Another Unit Of Crime Prevention Services.  A. The Msb>Msc And Crime Prevention Activities Should Be Expanded B. The Msb=Msc And The Level Of Crime Prevention Is Optional C. The Msb<Msc And Crime Prevention Activities Should Not Be Expanded D. The Tsb>Tsc And Crime Prevention Should Be Expanded E. None Of The Above
 22. Police Officers Should Be Hired Up To The Point Where  A. The Public Feels Safe In Their Homes B. The Crime Rate Falls To Zero C. The Benefit Of The Last Officer Hired Is Just Equal To What Its Cost To Hire Her D. The Benefit Of The Last Officer Hired Exceeds The Cost E. It Is Not Possible To Tell Without Further Information
 23. Which Of The Following Is Not An Economic Cost Of Crime? The  A. Lost Earnings Of Victims Of Crime B. Value Of Property Destroyed By Criminal Activities C. Dollars Spent On Illegal Drugs D. Tax Dollars Spent On Crime Prevention E. Suffering Experienced By Crime Victims
 24. Economic Analysis Of Crime Can  A. Determine What Activities Should Be Considered Illegal B. Determine What The Economic Impact Will Be Of Making Certain Activities Illegal C. Tell Us Which Activities Should Be Punishable D. Tell Us How Much It Will Cost To Eliminate Crime E. Do All Of The Above
 25. Marginal Social Benefits Of Crime Prevention Activities  A. Are The Increase In The Value Of Such Activities To The Community Resulting From A One-Unit Increase In Such Activities B. Are Difficult To Calculate C. Usually Decrease With Additional Units Of Those Activities D. Include A Decrease In The Suffering Of Crime Victims E. All Of The Above
 26. If Society Receives No Additional Benefit From Increasing Crime Prevention Activities, The Msb Of Crime Prevention  A. Equals 0 B. Is Increasing C. Is Decreasing D. Is Equal To The Msc Of Crime Prevention E. Must Rise In The Long Run.
 27. If Increasing Police Patrols In A Neighborhood Requires Paying Officers Overtime, Then The Marginal Cost Of Additional Police Patrols  A. Increases B. Decreases C. Equals Msb D. Must Fall Before It Is Efficient To Have More Patrols E. Are Too High
 28. Assume Police Officers And Prison Guards Earn $30,000. Hiring A Police Officer Changes The Total Benefits Of Crime Prevention From 100 To 120, While Hiring A Prison Guard Increases Total Benefits From 100 To 115. If The Crime Prevention Budget Is Increased By $30,000, Which Of The Following Is The Most Efficient Way To Spend The Money?  A. Hire A Guard B. Hire A Police Officer C. Hire One Guard And One Police Officer D. Hire A Half Time Guard And A Half Time Police Officer E. Do Not Spend The Additional Money
 29. If The Private Benefit Of Buying A Car Alarm Is $250 And The Social Benefit Of The Car Alarm Is $350, Is It Optimal For You To Buy A Car Alarm If It Costs $300?  A. Yes, Because Benefits Exceed The Cost B. Yes, Because Msb > Msc C. No, Because Private Benefits Are Less Than Private Cost D. No, Because Mpb < Msc E. The Outcome Is The Same Whether You Buy The Alarm Or Not
 30. Additional Expenditures Should Not Be Made On Police Protection If The Additional Cost Of Police Protection  A. Is Less Than The Additional Benefit B. Would Increase The Msb Of Fire Protection By More C. Is More Than The Change Total Social Benefits As A Result Of The Additional Police Protection D. Would Cause A Larger Increase In Total Social Benefits If Spent Elsewhere E. Is All Of The Above
 31. An Additional Expenditure On Crime Prevention Should Be Allocated To The Activity Where  A. Msb Is Greatest B. Msc Is Lowest C. Tsb Is Greatest D. Tsc Is Lowest E. Tsc Is Highest
  Questions 32 - 36 Refer To The Table Below.   
 32. The Marginal Social Benefit Of The Third Unit Of Crime Prevention Is  A. 200 B. 180 C. 160 D. 140 E. 90
 33. The Marginal Social Cost Of The Fourth Unit Of Crime Prevention Is  A. 270 B. 180 C. 160 D. 90 E. 60
 34. The Efficient Number Of Units Of Crime Prevention Is  A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
 35. As More Crime Prevention Is Added, The Msb Of Crime Prevention  A. Increases B. Decreases C. Becomes Higher Than Mcs D. Does Not Change E. Is More Difficult To Determine
 36. The Net Benefit Of An Additional Unit Of Crime Prevention To Society Is Highest With How Many Units Of Crime Prevention?  A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 5 E. 6
  Questions 37 - 41 Refer To The Table Below.    The Cost Of Each Police Officer Is $20,000; The Cost Of Each Patrol Car Is $10,000.
 37. If The Total Budget Is $100,000, What Is The Most Efficient Allocation Of The Crime Prevention Budget?  A. 1 Police Officer; 8 Patrol Cars B. 2 Police Officers; 6 Patrol Cars C. 3 Police Officers; 4 Patrol Cars D. 4 Police Officers; 2 Patrol Cars E. 5 Police Officers; 0 Patrol Cars
 38. If The Police Department Gets An Additional Allocation Of $40,000, How Should The Money Be Allocated Between Police Officers And Patrol Cars?  A. 2 Police Officers; 0 Patrol Cars B. 2 Police Officers; 1 Patrol Car C. 1 Police Officer; 1 Patrol Car D. 1 Police Officer; 2 Patrol Cars E. 0 Police Officers; 4 Patrol Cars
 39. The Net Social Benefit Of The Third Patrol Car Is  A. $11,000 B. $15,000 C. $20,000 D. $36,000 E. $45,000
 40. The Total Benefit Of Hiring Three Police Officers Is  A. $18,000 B. $48,000 C. $60,000 D. $148,000 E. $249,000
 41. The Net Social Benefit Of Hiring One Police Officer And Buying One Patrol Car Is  A. $40,000 B. $41,000 C. $80,000 D. $120,000 E. $150,000
 42. If Abortion Were Made Illegal Throughout The United States,  A. The Cost Of Abortion Services Would Rise B. The Quality Of Abortion Services Would Fall And Become Less Standardized C. The Supply Of Abortion Services Would Decrease D. The Demand For Abortion Services Would Decrease E. All Of The Above
 43. The More Abortions A Doctor Performs, The Fewer The Appendectomies He Can Perform. Measuring The Cost Of An Abortion In Terms Of The Number Of Appendectomies He Must Forego Performing Is An Illustration Of The  A. Economies Of Mass Production B. Law Of Diminishing Returns C. Opportunity Cost Principle D. Law Of Comparative Advantage E. Law Of Demand
 44. In Any City With A Given Crime Prevention Budget, Additional Suppression Of Prostitution  A. Will Necessarily Result In Unemployment B. Is Always Economically And Morally Defensible C. Is Never Defensible Economically Or Morally D. Will Usually Be Achieved At The Expense Of An Increase In Other Kinds Of Crime E. All Of The Above
 45. Which Of The Following Is An Economic Effect Of Prohibition Of Alcohol?  A. A Reduction In The Supply, A Decrease In Price, And A Decrease In The Quality Of Liquor B. An Increase In Supply, A Decrease In Price, And An Increase In The Quality Of Liquor C. A Decrease In Supply, An Increase In Price, And No Change In The Quality D. A Decrease In Supply, An Increase In Price, And A Decrease In Quality E. None Of The Above
 46. If A Law Is Passed Making It Illegal For Unlicensed Barbers To Cut Hair, Which Of The Following Will Result?  A. Higher Quality Haircuts B. Higher Priced Haircuts C. Cleaner, More Sanitary Barber Shops D. Lower Priced Haircuts E. More Barbers In The Trade
 47. Suppose A Poor Person Steals $10,000 From A Middle Income Person. Economic Analysis Tells Us That  A. There Is An Economic Loss For The Society As A Whole B. There Is An Economic Gain For The Society As A Whole C. A Public Good Will Usually Be Purchased With The Money D. We Cannot Be Sure Whether There Is Economic Gain Or Loss For The Society As A Whole E. The Benefit To The Poor Person Exceeds The Cost To The Middle Income Person
 48. The Most Likely Economic Effects Of The Legalization Of Marijuana Are  A. An Increase In Both Supply And Demand B. A Fall In The Price Of Marijuana C. An Increase In Marijuana Use D. An Increase In The Quality Of Marijuana E. All Of The Above
  Questions 49 - 53 Refer To The Graph Below.   
 49. Which Of The Following Shifts Best Represents The Likely Effect Of Legalizing Marijuana?  A. D1 To D2 B. D2 To D1 C. S2 To S1 D. D1 To D2 And S1 To S2 E. D2 To D1 And S1 To S2
 50. If The Market For Marijuana Changes From Illegal To Legal, Supply Will  A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Left D. Not Be Affected E. Become Steeper
 51. Curves D1 And S1 Represent The Market For Marijuana If It Is Illegal. Legalization Of Marijuana Will Cause Equilibrium Price And Quantity To Change To  A. P1 And Q2 B. P2 And Q1 C. P3 And Q4 D. P4 And Q3 E. None Of The Above
 52. If The Market For Marijuana Changes From Legal To Illegal, Demand Will  A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Right D. Not Be Affected E. Become Steeper
  53. In Addition To The Change In Supply, Demand, Price, And Quantity, Legalization Of Marijuana Would Have Which Of The Following Effects?  A. Improved Quality B. Less Criminal Activity C. A Decrease In Resources Needed For Crime Prevention D. All Of The Above E. None Of The Above
  Questions 54 - 58 Refer To The Graph Below.   
 54. Which Of The Following Shifts Best Represents The Likely Effect Of Prohibition On The Market For Beer?  A. D1 To D2 B. D2 To D1 C. S2 To S1 D. D1 To D2 And S1 To S2 E. D2 To D1 And S2 To S1
 55. With Prohibition, Supply In The Market For Beer Will  A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Right D. Not Be Affected E. Become Flatter
 56. With Prohibition, Demand In The Market For Beer Will  A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Right D. Not Be Affected E. Become Flatter
 57. Curves D2 And S2 Represent The Market For Beer If It Is Legal. Prohibition Will Cause Equilibrium Price And Quantity To Change To  A. P1 And Q2 B. P2 And Q1 C. P3 And Q4 D. P4 And Q3 E. None Of The Above
 58. In Addition To The Change In Supply, Demand, Price, And Quantity Of Beer, Prohibition Would Have Which Of The Following Effects?  A. Improved Quality B. Less Criminal Activity C. A Decrease In Resources Needed For Crime Prevention D. All Of The Above E. None Of The Above
 59. Which Of The Following Would Not Result From The Legalization Of Marijuana?  A. A Fall In The Price Of Marijuana B. An Increase In The Quality Of Marijuana C. A Significant Increase In The Supply Of Marijuana D. A Significant Increase In The Demand For Marijuana E. A Decrease In The Supply Of Marijuana
 60. People Choose To Participate In Criminal Activities Because  A. Their Implicit Costs Are Low B. They Have A Strong, Unrestrained Emotion C. The Probability Of Getting Caught Is Low D. The Potential Return Is High E. All Of The Above
 61. Economics Explains The Decision To Participate In Criminal Activities Most Often In The Case Of  A. Violent Crimes B. Crimes Of Passion C. Murder D. Trafficking In Illegal Substances E. Vandalism
 62. If You Are Willing To Take A Pay Cut To Live Near A Ski Resort, The Ski Resort Provides You With  A. Free Ski Lessons B. Psychic Benefits C. Opportunities For Advancement D. Marginal Social Benefits E. Marginal Social Costs
 63. If Income From The Sale Of Illegal Goods Exceeds The Production Costs Of The Goods, Which Of The Following Is  ?  A. The Criminal Earns A Profit B. Crime "Pays" C. Revenue Plus Psychic Income Exceeds All Costs D. Income More Than Covers Explicit, Implicit, And Psychic Costs E. All Of The Above
 64. Which Of The Following Is An Explicit Cost Of An Illegal Marijuana Growing Operation? The Cost Of  A. Land B. Electricity C. Fertilizer And Pesticides D. Labor E. All Of The Above
 65. Which Of The Following Is An Implicit Cost Of An Illegal Marijuana Growing Operation?  A. Foregone Income Due To Time Spent Managing The Operation B. Lost Time If The Manager Is Caught C. Lost Liberty If The Manager Is Jailed D. The Value Of The Time Spent Avoiding Detection E. All Of The Above
 66. Which Of The Following Does Not Go Into The Calculation Of The Implicit Cost Of A Marijuana Growing Operation?  A. The Probability Of Getting Caught B. The Severity Of Potential Jail Sentences C. The Time It Takes To Tend The Crop D. Payments For Fertilizer And Pesticides E. None Of The Above (They All Go Into The Calculation Of Implicit Costs)
 67. Which Of The Following Decreases A Person's Implicit Cost Of Engaging In The Illegal Production Of Marijuana?  A. Concern About Social Standing B. Unemployment C. An Intense Fear Of Incarceration D. A High Probability Of Getting Caught E. All Of The Above
 68. When An Individual Incurs Costs In The Form Of Negative Personal Satisfaction, The Costs Are  A. Opportunity Costs B. Implicit Costs C. Psychic Costs D. Psychic Income E. Externalities
 69. Which Of The Following Increases The Chances That A Person Will Engage In Criminal Activity?  A. A High Perceived Probability Of Getting Caught B. A Low Potential Pay-Off From The Crime C. The Ability To Restrain Emotions D. A Low Opportunity Cost E. None Of The Above
 70. When An Individual Receives Benefits From A Business Endeavor In The Form Of Personal Satisfaction, The Benefits Are Known As  A. Opportunity Costs B. Implicit Costs C. Psychic Costs D. Psychic Income E. Externalities
 71. Which Of The Following Will Increase The Implicit Costs Of Committing A Crime?  A. Decreased Crime Prevention Expenditures B. Decreased Probability Of Getting Caught C. Improved Job Opportunities D. More Lenient Sentencing E. Less Severe Penalties
 72. Which Of The Following Could Explain Why Criminals Commit Crimes That Are Punished By The Death Penalty?  A. They Perceive That The Probability Of Getting Caught Is Zero B. The Crime Is A "Crime Of Passion." C. Their Opportunity Cost Is Zero D. The Benefit Of The Crime Is Infinite E. All Of The Above
 73. Which Of The Following Policies Could Increase The Cost Of Committing Crimes?  A. Job Training Programs B. Increased Employment Opportunities C. Higher Crime Prevention Budgets D. More Severe Penalties E. All Of The Above
 74. Some People Give Up High-Paying City Jobs To Live Much Simpler, Rural Lives. Which Of The Following Is A Sound Economic Explanation For This?  A. The Very High Psychic Income They Receive From The Simple Way Of Life B. The Lower Cost Of Living In The Country C. The Fear Of Crime In The City D. The Fact That Rural Jobs Are Easier E. None Of The Above
 75. Job Training Programs, Remedial Education Courses, And Recreational Activities Might Lead To Reduced Crime Rates In Depressed Areas By  A. Providing Jobs To Instructors And Counselors B. Increasing The Opportunity Costs Of Committing Crimes C. Improving The Public's View Of Their Community D. Providing Psychic Income To Organizers E. None Of The Above
 76. An Example Of A Semi-Private Good Would Be  A. Measles Inoculation Programs B. A Neighborhood Crime Watch Group C. Talking On A Cell Phone During The Screening Of A Movie D. All Of The Above Are Semi-Private Goods E. None Of The Choices Are Semi-Private Goods
 77. Consumer Ratings Of Products Online, Like The Zagat's Restaurant Guide And Epinions Can Be Considered Examples Of  A. Private Goods B. Public Goods C. Semi-Private Goods D. Experience Goods E. Worthless, Since You Don't Know Who Is Doing The Reviewing
 78. Economists Think That You Can Analyze Why Individuals Commit Crimes Because  A. Criminals Are Always Trying To Obtain Monetary Gains B. Criminals Weigh The Costs And Benefits Associated With The Costs Of Committing A Crime C. Crime Has Costs To Society D. All Of The Above E. It Is Not Possible To Analyze The Commission Of Crimes Using Economic Analysis
  True / False Questions  
79. Murder Is Both Illegal And Immoral. 
 80. Current Reports On Crime Are Concerned Solely With The Number Of Crimes Committed And Not With Dollar Estimates Of Their Cost. 
 81. The Criminality Of Specific Acts Can Be Ascertained By Evaluating Their Morality Or Immorality. 
 82. Vandalism Is A Violent Crime. 
 83. Violent Crimes Are Crimes Against Persons. 
 84. Crime Prevention Is A Public Good And Is Subject To The Free-Rider Problem. 
 85. The Free-Rider Problem Occurs When People Cannot Be Excluded From The Benefits Of A Public Good Even Though They Do Not Help Pay For Production Of It. 
 86. Government Can Effectively Remedy The Free-Rider Problem By Taxing All Who Receive Benefits Of A Public Good. 
 87. Automobiles Can Be Considered Semiprivate Goods, Since They Produce Positive Externalities. 
 88. Semi-Private Goods And Services Yield Identifiable Benefits To The One Who Consumes Them, But Their Consumption By One Person Yields Spillover Benefits To Other Persons. 
 89. Thanks To The Data-Collecting Activities Of The U.S. Department Of Justice, We Now Have Very Good Estimates Of The Costs Of Crime. 
 90. Society's Standards Of Social Values Are An Important Determinant Of The Level Of Criminal Activity. 
 91. Laws Prohibiting Abortions Rest On Moral Grounds Rather Than Economic Grounds. 
 92. Group Projects Can Suffer From A Free-Rider Problem. 
 93. A Polio Vaccine Is An Example Of A Good That Is Semi-Private. 
 94. Public Goods Include Things Like Concerts And Theater Performances. 
 95. Free-Riders Can Be Useful In Group Work Situations Because They Cause The Work To Be Completed By Those Members Of The Group Who Are Best At The Assigned Tasks. 
 96. From The Viewpoint Of A Society As A Whole, Theft Represents A Transfer Of Income To Thieves From Victims Of Theft. 
 97. If The Correct Amount Has Been Budgeted For Crime Prevention Activities, The Last Dollar Spent Should Yield Approximately One Dollar's Worth Of Additional Benefits. 
 98. Crime Prevention Activities Should, If Effective, Raise Gdp Above The Level That It Would Be In Their Absence. 
 99. The Economic Cost Of Crime Prevention Is The Value Of The Goods And Services That Could Have Been Produced Using Resources Put Into Crime Prevention. 
 100. Marginal Social Benefits Are The Positive Social Spillovers In Consumption That Result From The Consumption Of Public Goods. 
 101. The Costs Of Being Apprehended And Convicted Of A Crime Are Less For Those Living In Poverty Than For Those From Middle And Upper Income Groups. 
 102. The Ultimate Economic Goal Of Crime Prevention Is Complete Suppression Of Crime. 
 103. More Criminal Justice Expenditures Should Be Made For Detection And Apprehension Of Criminals. 
 104. Crime Prevention Activities Should Be Expanded To The Point At Which Their Marginal Social Benefit Is Equal To Their Marginal Social Costs. 
 105. In The United States, The Federal Government Spends More For Corrections Than State And Local Governments. 
 106. Crime Prevention Is An Example Of A "Free" Good Since It Raises Gdp Above The Level That It Would Be In The Absence Of Prevention. 
 107. The Equimarginal Principle May Be Applied Effectively Any Time A Fixed Budget Must Be Allocated Among Competing Uses. 
 108. The Equimarginal Principle Is Satisfied When We Spend The Same Amount Of Money On The Police, Courts, And Prisons. 
 109. Trafficking In Illegal Goods And Services Adds To The Well-Being Of Consumers. 
 110. If Abortion Is Made Illegal, Demand And Supply Will Fall. 
 111. The Economic Effects Of Prohibition Of Alcoholic Beverages Include A Decrease In Supply, An Increase In Price, And A Decrease In Quality. 
 112. The Legalization Of Marijuana Would Be Unlikely To Greatly Increase The Demand For The Good. 
 113. Trafficking In Illegal Goods And Services Necessarily Reduces The Economic Welfare Of A Society. 
 114. A Budget Is Allocated Efficiently When All Functions Within The Budget Receive The Same Amount Of Funding. 
 115. The Demand For Abortions Would Fall Significantly If The Service Were Made Illegal. 
 116. Psychic Income Refers To The Satisfaction Received From Attending Cultural Events Like Special Showings At An Art Gallery. 
 117. The Total Revenue From A Business Includes The Money Income The Business Takes In And Any Psychic Income The Owners Receive. 
 118. If The Likelihood Of Being Caught Committing A Crime Is Low, The Severity Of The Penalty Is Of Little Importance To Potential Criminals. 
 119. The Legalization Of Marijuana Would Cause A Big Increase In The Demand For The Drug. 
 120. The Legalization Of Marijuana Would Lead To A Significant Increase In The Quality Of The Drug Available On The Streets. 
 121. Making Abortion Services Illegal Would Lead To A Large Decrease In The Demand For The Service. 
 122. Recreational Activities For Youths In Depressed Areas Might Help Reduce Criminal Activities By Increasing The Opportunity Cost Of Committing Crimes. 
 123. The Value Of Property Damage From A Crime Is An Implicit Cost Of The Crime. 
 124. The Negative Personal Satisfaction Received Because You Have To Drive A Different Car Than You Would Otherwise Choose Because It Is Harder To Steal Is An Example Of A Psychic Cost Of Crime. 
 125. If You Love Your Job, You Are Receiving Psychic Income. 
 126. The Opportunity Cost Of A Doctor Who Spends One-Half Hour Performing An Abortion Might Be The $2,000 He Could Earn During The Same Amount Of Time Performing An Appendectomy. 
 127. People Are More Likely To Commit Crimes If They Perceive The Probability Of Getting Caught Is Low. 
 128. The Opportunity Cost Of Jail Time Is What You Could Have Done Had You Not Been In Jail. 
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ECO 305 Week 3 Quiz – Strayer
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 Quiz 2 Chapter 3 and 4
 CHAPTER 3
 SOURCES OF COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGE
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         Which of the following suggests that a nation will export the commodity in the production of which a great deal of its relatively abundant and cheap factor is used?
a.         The Linder theory
b.         The product life cycle theory
c.         The MacDougall theory
d.         The Heckscher-Ohlin theory
               2.         According to Staffan Linder, trade between two countries tends to be most pronounced when the countries:
a.         Find their tastes and preferences to be quite harmonious
b.         Experience economies of large-scale production over large output levels
c.         Face dissimilar relative abundances of the factors of production
d.         Find their per capita income levels to be approximately the same
               3.         Which of the following is a long-run theory, emphasizing changes in the trading position of a nation over a number of years?
a.         Theory of factor endowments
b.         Comparative advantage theory
c.         Theory of the product cycle
d.         Overlapping demand theory
               4.         The Leontief paradox questioned the validity of the theory of:
a.         Comparative advantage
b.         Factor endowments
c.         Overlapping demands
d.         Absolute advantage
               5.         Which of the following would least likely apply to the product life cycle theory?
a.         Calculators and computers
b.         Coal and crude oil
c.         Home movie cameras
d.         Office machinery
               6.         Classical trade theory emphasized which of the following as an underlying explanation of the basis for trade?
a.         Productivities of labor inputs
b.         Tastes and preferences among nations
c.         Changes in technologies over time
d.         Quantities of economic resources
               7.         Concerning the influence that transportation costs have on the location of industry, which of the following industries has generally attempted to locate production facilities close to resource supplies?
a.         Autos
b.         Steel
c.         Soft drinks
d.         Valuable electronics goods
               8.         Assume that Country A, in the absence of trade, finds itself relatively abundant in labor and relatively scarce in land. The factor endowment theory reasons that with free trade, the internal distribution of national income in Country A will change in favor of:
a.         Labor
b.         Land
c.         Both labor and land
d.         Neither labor nor land
               9.         When considering the effects of transportation costs, the conclusions of our trade model must be modified. This is because transportation costs result in:
a.         Lower trade volume, higher import prices, smaller gains from trade
b.         Lower trade volume, lower import prices, smaller gains from trade
c.         Higher trade volume, higher import prices, smaller gains from trade
d.         Higher trade volume, lower import prices, greater gains from trade
               10.       Most economists maintain that the major factor underlying wage stagnation in the United States in the 1990s has been:
a.         Import competition
b.         Technological change
c.         Rising real value of the minimum wage
d.         Increasing union membership
               11.       Assume the cost of transporting autos from Japan to Canada exceeds the pretrade price difference for autos between Japan and Canada. Trade in autos is:
a.         Impossible
b.         Possible
c.         Highly profitable
d.         Moderately profitable
               12.       Eli Heckscher and Bertil Ohlin are associated with the theory of comparative advantage that stresses differences in:
a.         Income levels among countries
b.         Tastes and preferences among countries
c.         Resource endowments among countries
d.         Labor productivities among countries
               13.       Hong Kong is relatively abundant in labor, while Canada is relatively abundant in capital. In both countries the production of shirts is relatively more labor intensive than the production of computers. According to the factor endowment theory, Hong Kong will have a(n):
a.         Absolute advantage in the production of shirts and computers
b.         Absolute advantage in the production of computers
c.         Comparative advantage in the production of shirts
d.         Comparative advantage in the production of computers
               14.       If Japanese workers receive lower wages in the production of autos than do American workers:
a.         Japan will have a comparative advantage in the production of autos
b.         Japan will have an absolute advantage in the production of autos
c.         Production costs will be lower in Japan than in the U.S.
d.         Production costs could be lower in the U.S. if American labor productivity is higher than the Japanese
               15.       Which trade theory suggests that a newly produced good, once exported, could ultimately end up being imported as the technology is transferred to lower- cost nations?
a.         Factor endowment theory
b.         Product life cycle theory
c.         Overlapping demand theory
d.         Comparative advantage theory
               16.       A firm is said to enjoy economies of scale over the range of output for which the long-run average cost is:
a.         Increasing
b.         Constant
c.         Decreasing
d.         None of the above
               17.       A product will be internationally traded as long as the pretrade price differential between the trading partners is:
a.         Greater than the cost of transporting it between them
b.         Equal to the cost of transporting it between them
c.         Less than the cost of transporting it between them
d.         None of the above
               18.       Which of the following suggests that by widening the market's size, international trade can permit longer production runs for manufacturers, which leads to increasing efficiency?
a.         Economies of scale
b.         Diseconomies of scale
c.         Comparative cost theory
d.         Absolute cost theory
               19.       The Leontief paradox:
a.         Was applied to the product life cycle theory
b.         Suggested that the U.S. exports labor-intensive goods
c.         Found that national income differences underlie world trade patterns
d.         Implied that diseconomies of scale occur at low output levels
               20.       Which of the following best applies to the theory of overlapping demands?
a.         Manufactured goods
b.         Services
c.         Primary products
d.         None of the above
               21.       The Heckscher-Ohlin theory explains comparative advantage as the result of differences in countries':
a.         Economies of large-scale production
b.         Relative abundance of various resources
c.         Relative costs of labor
d.         Research and development
               22.       Boeing aircraft company was able to cover its production costs of the first "jumbo jet" in the 1970s because Boeing could market it to several foreign airlines in addition to domestic airlines. This illustrates:
a.         How economies of scale make possible a larger variety of products in international trade
b.         A transfer of wealth from domestic consumers to domestic producers as the result of trade
c.         How a natural monopoly is forced to behave more competitively with international trade
d.         How a natural monopoly is forced to behave less competitively with international trade
               23.       Which trade theory contends that a country that initially develops and exports a new product may eventually become an importer of it and may no longer manufacture the product?
a.         Theory of factor endowments
b.         Theory of overlapping demands
c.         Economies of scale theory
d.         Product life cycle theory
               24.       The theory of overlapping demands predicts that trade in manufactured goods is unimportant for countries with very different:
a.         Tastes and preferences
b.         Expectations of future interest rate levels
c.         Per-capita income levels
d.         Labor productivities
               25.       The trade model of the Swedish economists Heckscher and Ohlin maintains that:
a.         Absolute advantage determines the distribution of the gains from trade
b.         Comparative advantage determines the distribution of the gains from trade
c.         The division of labor is limited by the size of the world market
d.         A country exports goods for which its resource endowments are most suited
               26.       According to the factor endowment model, countries heavily endowed with land will:
a.         Devote excessive amounts of resources to agricultural production
b.         Devote insufficient amounts of resources to agricultural production
c.         Export products that are land-intensive
d.         Import products that are land-intensive
               27.       For the United States, empirical studies indicate that over the past two decades the cost of international transportation relative to the value of U.S. imports has:
a.         Increased
b.         Decreased
c.         Not changed
d.         None of the above
               28.       Should international transportation costs decrease, the effect on international trade would include:
a.         An increase in the volume of trade
b.         A smaller gain from trade
c.         A decline in the income of home producers
d.         A decrease in the level of specialization in production.
               29.       That the division of labor is limited by the size of the market best applies to which explanation of trade?
a.         Factor endowment theory
b.         Product life cycle theory
c.         Economies of scale theory
d.         Overlapping demand theory
               30.       A larger variety of products results from international trade especially if:
a.         International trade affords producers monopoly power
b.         National governments levy import tariffs and quotas
c.         Producing goods entails increasing costs
d.         Economies of scale exist for producers
               31.       With economies of scale and decreasing unit costs, a country has the incentive to:
a.         Specialize completely in the product of its comparative advantage
b.         Specialize partially in the product of its comparative advantage
c.         Specialize completely in the product of its comparative disadvantage
d.         Specialize partially in the product of its comparative disadvantage
               32.       Proponents of ____ maintain that government should enact policies that encourage the development of emerging, "sunrise" industries.
a.         Product life cycle policy
b.         Static comparative advantage policy
c.         Intraindustry trade policy
d.         Industrial policy
               33.       Legislation requiring domestic manufacturers to install pollution abatement equipment tends to promote:
a.         Higher production costs and an increase in output
b.         Higher production costs and a decrease in output
c.         Lower production costs and an increase in output
d.         Lower production costs and a decrease in output
               34.       Stringent governmental regulations (e.g., air quality standards) imposed on domestic steel manufacturers tend to:
a.         Enhance their competitiveness in the international market
b.         Detract from their competitiveness in the international market
c.         Increase the profitability and productivity of domestic manufacturers
d.         Reduce the market share of foreign firms selling steel in the domestic market
               35.       Among the determinants underlying a country's international competitiveness in business services (e.g., construction) are:
a.         The potential scale economies afforded by a market's size
b.         Abundance of equipment including data processing facilities and computers
c.         Skills and capabilities of employees and their wage rates
d.         All of the above
               36.       The simultaneous import and export of computers by Germany is an example of:
a.         Intraindustry trade
b.         Interindustry trade
c.         Perfect competition
d.         Imperfect competition
               37.       Linder's theory of overlapping demand provides an explanation of:
a.         Product life cycle theory
b.         Factor endowment model
c.         Economies of large-scale production
d.         Intraindustry trade
               38.       Intraindustry trade can be explained in part by:
a.         Adam Smith's principle of absolute advantage
b.         Perfect competition in product markets
c.         Diseconomies of large scale production
d.         Transportation costs between and within nations
               39.       The Leontief paradox provided:
a.         Support for the principle of absolute advantage
b.         Support for the factor endowment model
c.         Evidence against the factor endowment model
d.         Evidence against the principle of absolute advantage
               40.       Which trade theory suggests that comparative advantage tends to shift from one nation to another as a product matures?
a.         Interindustry trade theory
b.         Intraindustry trade theory
c.         Product life cycle theory
d.         Overlapping demand theory
               41.       Which trade theory is tantamount to a short-run version of the factor price equalization theory?
a.         Specific factors theory
b.         Product life cycle theory
c.         Economies of scale theory
d.         Overlapping demand theory
               42.       According to the specific factors trade theory:
a.         Owners of factors specific to export industries suffer from trade, while owners of factors specific to import-competing industries gain
b.         Owners of factors specific to export industries gain from trade, while owners of factors specific to import-competing industries suffer
c.         Both owners of factors specific to export industries and owners of factors specific to import-competing industries gain from trade
d.         Both owners of factors specific to export industries and owners of factors specific to import-competing industries suffer from trade
               43.       Which nation has sometimes been characterized as being a "pollution haven" due to its lenient environmental standards that encourage the production of pollution-intensive goods?
a.         Japan
b.         Canada
c.         Germany
d.         Mexico
               44.       Boeing Inc. has criticized The Airbus Company's competitiveness on the grounds that Airbus benefits from:
a.         Import tariffs protecting Airbus in the European market
b.         Import quotas protecting Airbus in the European market
c.         Lenient environmental standards of European governments
d.         Production subsidies supplied by European governments
               45.       To justify the subsidies it has received from European governments, The Airbus Company has used all of the following arguments except:
a.         Its subsidies have prevented U.S. aircraft firms from holding a world-wide monopoly
b.         U.S. aircraft firms have benefited from military-sponsored programs of the U.S. government
c.         Airbus' subsidies were totally repaid as the firm realized profits on its aircraft sales
d.         Without subsidies to Airbus, Europe would be dependent on the United States as a supplier of aircraft
               46.       Expanding trade or technological improvements
a.         Increases the demand for skilled workers in the U.S.
b.         Decreases the demand for unskilled workers in the U.S.
c.         Increases the demand for unskilled workers in the U.S.
d.         Both a and b.
               47.       Economists agree that wages of unskilled workers are being held down by
a.         International trade
b.         Technology improvements
c.         Lack of education
d.         A combination of a, b, and c
               48.       The factor endowment theory states that comparative advantage is explained
a.         Exclusively by differences in relative supply conditions
b.         Exclusively by differences in relative national demand conditions
c.         Both supply and demand conditions
d.         None of the above
               49.       The factor endowment theory assumes
a.         Same tastes and preferences
b.         Factor inputs of uniform quality
c.         Same technology
d.         All of the above
               50.       In explaining international trade, the product life cycle theory focuses on
a.         Tastes and preferences
b.         The role of technological innovation
c.         Per-capita income levels of nations
d.         Both b and c
   TRUE/FALSE
             1.         According to Ricardian theory, comparative advantage depends on relative differences in labor productivity.
              2.         The Heckscher-Ohlin theory asserts that relative differences in labor productivity underlie comparative advantage.
              3.         The factor-endowment theory highlights the relative abundance of a nation's resources as the key factor underlying comparative advantage.
              4.         According to the factor-endowment theory, a nation will export that good for which a large amount of the relatively scarce resource is used.
              5.         According to the factor-endowment theory, a nation will import that good for which a large amount of the relatively abundant resource is used.
              6.         The Heckscher-Ohlin theory suggests that land-abundant nations will export land-intensive goods while labor-abundant nations will export labor-intensive goods.
              7.         The Heckscher-Ohlin theory contends that over a period of years a country that initially is an exporter of a product will become an importer of that product.
              8.         The Heckscher-Ohlin theory emphasizes the role that demand plays in the creation of comparative advantage.
              9.         The factor-endowment theory asserts that with specialization and trade there tends to occur an equalization in the relative resource prices of trading partners.
              10.       According to the factor-endowment theory, international specialization and trade cause a nation's cheap resource to become cheaper and a nation's expensive resource to become more expensive.
              11.       Fears about the downward pressure that cheap foreign workers place on U.S. wages have led U.S. labor unions to lobby for import restrictions such as tariffs and quotas.
              12.       According to the factor-price-equalization theory, international trade results in the relative differences in resource prices between nations being eliminated.
              13.       Empirical testing by Wassily Leontief gave support to the Heckscher-Ohlin theory of trade.
              14.       The Leontief Paradox was the first major challenge to the product-life-cycle theory of trade.
              15.       The Leontief Paradox suggested that, in contrast to the predictions of the factor-endowment theory, U.S. exports were less capital-intensive than U.S. import-competing goods.
              16.       The specific-factors theory analyzes the income distribution effects of trade in the short run when resources are immobile among industries.
              17.       Owners of resources specific to export industries tend to lose from international trade, while owners of factors specific to import-competing industries tend to gain.
              18.       The factor-price-equalization theory is a short-run version of the specific-factors theory.
              19.       With economies of scale, specialization in a few products allows a manufacturer to benefit from longer production runs which lead to decreasing average cost.
              20.       With decreasing costs, a country has an incentive to partially specialize in the product of its comparative advantage.
              21.       By widening the size of the domestic market, international trade permits companies to take advantage of longer production runs and increasing efficiencies such as mass production.
              22.       The theory of overlapping demands applies best to trade in manufactured goods.
              23.       Decreasing cost conditions lead to complete specialization in the production of the commodity of comparative advantage.
              24.       According to Staffan Linder, the factor endowment theory is useful in explaining trade patterns in manufactured goods, but not primary products.
              25.       The theory of overlapping demands asserts that trade in manufactured goods is stronger the less similar the demand structures of two countries.
              26.       The theory of overlapping demands contends that international trade in manufactured products is strongest among nations with similar income levels.
              27.       According to the theory of overlapping demands, trade in manufactured goods would be greater among two wealthy countries than among a wealthy country and a poor country.
              28.       Recent studies of U.S. resource endowments indicate that the United States is most abundant in unskilled labor, followed by semi-skilled labor and skilled labor.
              29.       Intraindustry trade would occur if computers manufactured in the United States by IBM are exported to Japan while the United States imports computers manufactured by Hitachi of Japan.
              30.       Because seasons in the Southern Hemisphere are opposite those in the Northern Hemisphere, one would expect intraindustry trade to occur in agricultural products.
              31.       Intraindustry trade can be explained by product differentiation, economies of scale, seasons of the year, and transportation costs.
              32.       According to the theory of intraindustry trade, many manufactured goods undergo a trade cycle in which the home country initially is an exporter and eventually becomes an importer of a product.
              33.       The product-life-cycle theory applies best to trade in primary products in the short run.
              34.       According to the product-life-cycle theory, the first stage of a product's trade cycle is when it is introduced to the home market.
              35.       According to the product life cycle theory, the last stage of a product's trade cycle is when it becomes an import-competing good.
              36.       Ricardo's theory of comparative advantage is a static theory that does not consider changes in international competitiveness over the long run.
              37.       Dynamic comparative advantage refers to the creation of comparative advantage through the mobilization of skilled labor, technology, and capital.
              38.       Industrial policy seeks to direct resources to declining industries in which productivity is low, linkages to the rest of the economy are weak, and future competitiveness is remote.
              39.       Europe's jumbo-jet manufacturer, Airbus, has justified receiving governmental subsidies on the grounds that the subsidies prevent the United States from becoming a monopoly in the jumbo-jet market.
              40.       The imposition of pollution-control regulations on domestic steel manufacturers leads to decreases in production costs and an improvement in the steel manufacturers' competitiveness.
              41.       Empirical studies conclude that U.S. environmental policies are a more important determinant of trade performance than capital, raw materials, labor skills, and wages.
              42.       Most developing countries have pollution-control laws and enforcement policies that are more stringent than those of the major industrial countries.
              43.       Although the theory of comparative advantage explains trade in manufactured goods, it has no explanatory value for trade in business services.
              44.       When transportation costs are added to our trade model, the low-cost exporting country produces less, consumes more, and exports less than that which occurs in the absence of transportation costs.
              45.       When transportation costs are added to our trade model, the degree of specialization in production between two countries increases as do the gains from trade.
              46.       In the absence of transportation costs, free trade results in the equalization of the prices of traded goods, as well as resource prices, in the trading nations.
              47.       In industries where the final product is much less weighty or bulky than the materials from which it is made, firms tend to locate production near resource supplies.
              48.       Industrial processes that add weight or bulk to a commodity are likely to be located near the resource market to minimize transportation costs.
              49.       A product will be traded only if the cost of transporting it between nations is less than the pretrade difference between their relative product prices.
              50.       Generally speaking, transportation costs are more important than production costs as a source of comparative advantage.
              51.       The product-life-cycle model contends that when a new product is introduced to the home market, it generally requires low-skilled labor to produce it.
              52.       According to the product life cycle model, comparative advantage shifts from cheap-labor countries to high-technology countries after a manufactured good becomes standardized.
  SHORT ANSWER
             1.         Does factor price equalization occur in the real world?
               2.         What is the focus of the product life cycle theory, and where is it applicable?
   ESSAY
             1.         Explain how immigration and trade may worsen wage inequality, and how college education may mitigate against that.
               2.         How does Staffan Linder explain world trade patterns?
    CHAPTER 4—TARIFFS
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         The imposition of tariffs on imports results in deadweight welfare losses for the home economy. These losses consist of the:
a.         Protective effect plus consumption effect
b.         Redistribution effect plus revenue effect
c.         Revenue effect plus protective effect
d.         Consumption effect plus redistribution effect
               2.         Suppose that the United States eliminates its tariff on steel imports, permitting foreign-produced steel to enter the U.S. market. Steel prices to U.S. consumers would be expected to:
a.         Increase, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would increase
b.         Decrease, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would increase
c.         Increase, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would decrease
d.         Decrease, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would decrease
               3.         A $100 specific tariff provides home producers more protection from foreign competition when:
a.         The home market buys cheaper products rather than expensive products
b.         It is applied to a commodity with many grade variations
c.         The home demand for a good is elastic with respect to price changes
d.         It is levied on manufactured goods rather than primary products
               4.         A lower tariff on imported aluminum would most likely benefit:
a.         Foreign producers at the expense of domestic consumers
b.         Domestic manufacturers of aluminum
c.         Domestic consumers of aluminum
d.         Workers in the domestic aluminum industry
               5.         When a government allows raw materials and other intermediate products to enter a country duty free, its tariff policy generally results in a:
a.         Effective tariff rate less than the nominal tariff rate
b.         Nominal tariff rate less than the effective tariff rate
c.         Rise in both nominal and effective tariff rates
d.         Fall in both nominal and effective tariff rates
               6.         Of the many arguments in favor of tariffs, the one that has enjoyed the most significant economic justification has been the:
a.         Infant industry argument
b.         Cheap foreign labor argument
c.         Balance of payments argument
d.         Domestic living standard argument
               7.         The redistribution effect of an import tariff is the transfer of income from the domestic:
a.         Producers to domestic buyers of the good
b.         Buyers to domestic producers of the good
c.         Buyers to the domestic government
d.         Government to the domestic buyers
               8.         Which of the following is true concerning a specific tariff?
a.         It is exclusively used by the U.S. in its tariff schedules.
b.         It refers to a flat percentage duty applied to a good's market value.
c.         It is plagued by problems associated with assessing import product values.
d.         It affords less protection to home producers during eras of rising prices.
               9.         The principal benefit of tariff protection goes to:
a.         Domestic consumers of the good produced
b.         Domestic producers of the good produced
c.         Foreign producers of the good produced
d.         Foreign consumers of the good produced
               10.       Which of the following policies permits a specified quantity of goods to be imported at one tariff rate and applies a higher tariff rate to imports above this quantity?
a.         Tariff quota
b.         Import tariff
c.         Specific tariff
d.         Ad valorem tariff
               11.       Assume the United States adopts a tariff quota on steel in which the quota is set at 2 million tons, the within-quota tariff rate equals 5 percent, and the over-quota tariff rate equals 10 percent. Suppose the U.S. imports 1 million tons of steel. The resulting revenue effect of the tariff quota would accrue to:
a.         The U.S. government only
b.         U.S. importing companies only
c.         Foreign exporting companies only
d.         The U.S. government and either U.S. importers or foreign exporters
               12.       When the production of a commodity does not utilize imported inputs, the effective tariff rate on the commodity:
a.         Exceeds the nominal tariff rate on the commodity
b.         Equals the nominal tariff rate on the commodity
c.         Is less than the nominal tariff rate on the commodity
d.         None of the above
               13.       Developing nations often maintain that industrial countries permit raw materials to be imported at very low tariff rates while maintaining high tariff rates on manufactured imports. Which of the following refers to the above statement?
a.         Tariff-quota effect
b.         Nominal tariff effect
c.         Tariff escalation effect
d.         Protective tariff effect
               14.       Should the home country be "large" relative to the world, its imposition of a tariff on imports would lead to an increase in domestic welfare if the terms-of-trade effect exceeds the sum of the:
a.         Revenue effect plus redistribution effect
b.         Protective effect plus revenue effect
c.         Consumption effect plus redistribution effect
d.         Protective effect plus consumption effect
               15.       Should Canada impose a tariff on imports, one would expect Canada's:
a.         Terms of trade to improve and volume of trade to decrease
b.         Terms of trade to worsen and volume of trade to decrease
c.         Terms of trade to improve and volume of trade to increase
d.         Terms of trade to worsen and volume of trade to increase
               16.       A beggar-thy-neighbor policy is the imposition of:
a.         Free trade to increase domestic productivity
b.         Trade barriers to increase domestic demand and employment
c.         Import tariffs to curb domestic inflation
d.         Revenue tariffs to make products cheaper for domestic consumers
               17.       A problem encountered when implementing an "infant industry" tariff is that:
a.         Domestic consumers will purchase the foreign good regardless of the tariff
b.         Political pressure may prevent the tariff's removal when the industry matures
c.         Most industries require tariff protection when they are mature
d.         Labor unions will capture the protective effect in higher wages
               18.       Tariffs are not defended on the ground that they:
a.         Improve the terms of trade of foreign nations
b.         Protect jobs and reduce unemployment
c.         Promote growth and development of young industries
d.         Prevent overdependence of a country on only a few industries
               19.       The deadweight loss of a tariff:
a.         Is a social loss since it promotes inefficient production
b.         Is a social loss since it reduces the revenue for the government
c.         Is not a social loss because society as a whole doesn't pay for the loss
d.         Is not a social loss since only business firms suffer revenue losses
               20.       Which of the following is a fixed percentage of the value of an imported product as it enters the country?
a.         Specific tariff
b.         Ad valorem tariff
c.         Nominal tariff
d.         Effective tariff
               21.       A tax of 20 cents per unit of imported cheese would be an example of:
a.         Compound tariff
b.         Effective tariff
c.         Ad valorem tariff
d.         Specific tariff
               22.       A tax of 15 percent per imported item would be an example of:
a.         Ad valorem tariff
b.         Specific tariff
c.         Effective tariff
d.         Compound tariff
               23.       Which type of tariff is not used by the American government?
a.         Import tariff
b.         Export tariff
c.         Specific tariff
d.         Ad valorem tariff
               24.       Which trade policy results in the government levying a "two-tier" tariff on imported goods?
a.         Tariff quota
b.         Nominal tariff
c.         Effective tariff
d.         Revenue tariff
               25.       If we consider the impact on both consumers and producers, then protection of the steel industry is:
a.         In the interest of the United States as a whole, but not in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
b.         In the interest of the United States as a whole and in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
c.         Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, but it might be in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
d.         Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, nor in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
               26.       If I purchase a stereo from South Korea, I obtain the stereo and South Korea obtains the dollars. But if I purchase a stereo produced in the United States, I obtain the stereo and the dollars remain in America. This line of reasoning is:
a.         Valid for stereos, but not for most products imported by the United States
b.         Valid for most products imported by the United States, but not for stereos
c.         Deceptive since Koreans eventually spend the dollars on U.S. goods
d.         Deceptive since the dollars spent on a stereo built in the United States eventually wind up overseas
               27.       The most vocal political pressure for tariffs is generally made by:
a.         Consumers lobbying for export tariffs
b.         Consumers lobbying for import tariffs
c.         Producers lobbying for export tariffs
d.         Producers lobbying for import tariffs
               28.       If we consider the interests of both consumers and producers, then a policy of tariff reduction in the U.S. auto industry is:
a.         In the interest of the United States as a whole, but not in the interest of auto-producing states
b.         In the interest of the United States as a whole, and in the interest of auto-producing states
c.         Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, nor in the interest of auto-producing states
d.         Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, but is in the interest of auto-producing states
               29.       Free traders point out that:
a.         There is usually an efficiency gain from having tariffs
b.         There is usually an efficiency loss from having tariffs
c.         Producers lose from tariffs at the expense of consumers
d.         Producers lose from tariffs at the expense of the government
               30.       A decrease in the import tariff will result in:
a.         An increase in imports but a decrease in domestic production
b.         A decrease in imports but an increase in domestic production
c.         An increase in price but a decrease in quantity purchased
d.         A decrease in price and a decrease in quantity purchased
   Figure 4.1 illustrates the demand and supply schedules for pocket calculators in Mexico, a "small" nation that is unable to affect the world price.
 Figure 4.1. Import Tariff Levied by a "Small" Country
               31.       Consider Figure 4.1. In the absence of trade, Mexico produces and consumes:
a.         10 calculators
b.         40 calculators
c.         60 calculators
d.         80 calculators
               32.       Consider Figure 4.1. In the absence of trade, Mexico's producer surplus and consumer surplus respectively equal:
a.         $120, $240
b.         $180, $180
c.         $180, $320
d.         $240, $240
               33.       Consider Figure 4.1. With free trade, Mexico imports:
a.         40 calculators
b.         60 calculators
c.         80 calculators
d.         100 calculators
               34.       Consider Figure 4.1. With free trade, the total value of Mexico's imports equal:
a.         $220
b.         $260
c.         $290
d.         $300
               35.       Consider Figure 4.1. With free trade, Mexico's producer surplus and consumer surplus respectively equal:
a.         $5, $605
b.         $25, $380
c.         $45, $250
d.         $85, $195
               36.       Consider Figure 4.1. With a per-unit tariff of $3, the quantity of imports decreases to:
a.         20 calculators
b.         40 calculators
c.         50 calculators
d.         70 calculators
               37.       According to Figure 4.1, the loss in Mexican consumer surplus due to the tariff equals:
a.         $225
b.         $265
c.         $285
d.         $325
               38.       According to Figure 4.1, the tariff results in the Mexican government collecting:
a.         $100
b.         $120
c.         $140
d.         $160
               39.       According to Figure 4.1, Mexican manufacturers gain ____ because of the tariff.
a.         $75
b.         $85
c.         $95
d.         $105
               40.       According to Figure 4.1, the deadweight cost of the tariff totals:
a.         $60
b.         $70
c.         $80
d.         $90
               41.       Consider Figure 4.1. The tariff would be prohibitive (i.e., eliminate imports) if it equaled:
a.         $2
b.         $3
c.         $4
d.         $5
   Assume the United States is a large consumer of steel that is able to influence the world price. Its demand and supply schedules are respectively denoted by DU.S. and SU.S. in Figure 4.2. The overall (United States plus world) supply schedule of steel is denoted by SU.S.+W.
 Figure 4.2. Import Tariff Levied by a "Large" Country
               42.       Consider Figure 4.2. With free trade, the United States achieves market equilibrium at a price of $____. At this price, ____ tons of steel are produced by U.S. firms, ____ tons are bought by U.S. buyers, and ____ tons are imported.
a.         $450, 5 tons, 60 tons, 55 tons
b.         $475, 10 tons, 50 tons, 40 tons
c.         $525, 5 tons, 60 tons, 55 tons
d.         $630, 30 tons, 30 tons, 0 tons
               43.       Consider Figure 4.2. Suppose the United States imposes a tariff of $100 on each ton of steel imported. With the tariff, the price of steel rises to $____ and imports fall to ____ tons.
a.         $550, 20 tons
b.         $550, 30 tons
c.         $575, 20 tons
d.         $575, 30 tons
               44.       Consider Figure 4.2. Of the $100 tariff, $____ is passed on to the U.S. consumer via a higher price, while $____ is borne by the foreign exporter; the U.S. terms of trade:
a.         $25, $75, improve
b.         $25, $75, worsen
c.         $75, $25, improve
d.         $75, $25, worsen
               45.       Referring to Figure 4.2, the tariff's deadweight welfare loss to the United States totals:
a.         $450
b.         $550
c.         $650
d.         $750
               46.       According to Figure 4.2, the tariff's terms-of-trade effect equals:
a.         $300
b.         $400
c.         $500
d.         $600
               47.       According to Figure 4.2, the tariff leads to the overall welfare of the United States:
a.         Rising by $250
b.         Rising by $500
c.         Falling by $250
d.         Falling by $500
               48.       Suppose that the production of $500,000 worth of steel in the United States requires $100,000 worth of iron ore. The U.S. nominal tariff rates for importing these goods are 15 percent for steel and 5 percent for iron ore. Given this information, the effective rate of protection for the U.S. steel industry is approximately:
a.         6 percent
b.         12 percent
c.         18 percent
d.         24 percent
               49.       Suppose that the production of a $30,000 automobile in Canada requires $10,000 worth of steel. The Canadian nominal tariff rates for importing these goods are 25 percent for automobiles and 10 percent for steel. Given this information, the effective rate of protection for the Canadian automobile industry is approximately:
a.         15 percent
b.         32 percent
c.         48 percent
d.         67 percent
   Exhibit 4.1
 Assume that the United States imports automobiles from South Korea at a price of $20,000 per vehicle and that these vehicles are subject to an import tariff of 20 percent. Also assume that U.S. components are used in the vehicles assembled by South Korea and that these components have a value of $10,000.
             50.       Refer to Exhibit 4.1. In the absence of the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported vehicle to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is:
a.         $22,000
b.         $23,000
c.         $24,000
d.         $25,000
               51.       Refer to Exhibit 4.1. Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported vehicle to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is:
a.         $22,000
b.         $23,000
c.         $24,000
d.         $25,000
               52.       Suppose an importer of steel is required to pay a tariff of $20 per ton plus 5 percent of the value of steel. This is an example of a (an):
a.         Specific tariff
b.         Ad valorem tariff
c.         Compound tariff
d.         Tariff quota
               53.       A compound tariff is a combination of a (an):
a.         Tariff quota and a two-tier tariff
b.         Revenue tariff and a protective tariff
c.         Import tariff and an export tariff
d.         Specific tariff and an ad valorem tariff
   Table 4.1. Production Costs and Prices of Imported and Domestic VCRs
 Imported VCRs          Domestic VCRs
Component parts         $150    Imported component parts      $150
Assembly cost/profit       50    Assembly cost     50
Nominal tariff     25    Profit       25
           ____                ____
Import price                Domestic price            
after tariff         225    after tariff         225
              54.       Consider Table 4.1. Prior to the tariff, the total price of domestically-produced VCRs is:
a.         $150
b.         $200
c.         $225
d.         $250
               55.       Consider Table 4.1. Prior to the tariff, the total price of imported VCRs is:
a.         $150
b.         $200
c.         $225
d.         $235
               56.       Consider Table 4.1. The nominal tariff rate on imported VCRs equals:
a.         11.1 percent
b.         12.5 percent
c.         16.7 percent
d.         50.0 percent
               57.       Consider Table 4.1. Prior to the tariff, domestic value added equals:
a.         $25
b.         $50
c.         $75
d.         $100
               58.       Consider Table 4.1. After the tariff, domestic value added equals:
a.         $25
b.         $50
c.         $75
d.         $100
               59.       Consider Table 4.1. The effective tariff rate equals:
a.         11.1 percent
b.         16.7 percent
c.         50.0 percent
d.         100.0 percent
               60.       If the domestic value added before an import tariff for a product is $500 and the domestic value added after the tariff is $550, the effective rate of protection is:
a.         5 percent
b.         8 percent
c.         10 percent
d.         15 percent
               61.       When a tariff on imported inputs exceeds that on the finished good,
a.         The nominal tariff rate on the finished product would tend to overstate its protective effect
b.         The nominal tariff rate would tend to understate it's protective effect
c.         It is impossible to determine the protective effect of a tariff
d.         Tariff escalation occurs
               62.       The offshore assembly provision in the U.S.
a.         Provides favorable treatment to U.S. trading partners
b.         Discriminates against primary product importers
c.         Provides favorable treatment to products assembled abroad from U.S. manufactured components
d.         Hurts the U.S. consumer
               63.       Arguments for U.S. trade restrictions include all of the following except
a.         Job protection
b.         Infant industry support
c.         Maintenance of domestic living standard
d.         Improving incomes for developing countries
               64.       For the United States, a foreign trade zone (FTZ) is
a.         A site within the United States
b.         A site outside the United States
c.         Always located in poorer developing countries
d.         Is used to discourage trade
   TRUE/FALSE
             1.         To protect domestic producers from foreign competition, the U.S. government levies both import tariffs and export tariffs.
              2.         With a compound tariff, a domestic importer of an automobile might be required to pay a duty of $200 plus 4 percent of the value of the automobile.
              3.         With a specific tariff, the degree of protection afforded domestic producers varies directly with changes in import prices.
              4.         During a business recession, when cheaper products are purchased, a specific tariff provides domestic producers a greater amount of protection against import-competing goods.
              5.         A ad valorem tariff provides domestic producers a declining degree of protection against import-competing goods during periods of changing prices.
              6.         With a compound duty, its "specific" portion neutralizes the cost disadvantage of domestic manufacturers that results from tariff protection granted to domestic suppliers of raw materials, and the "ad valorem" portion of the duty grants protection to the finished-goods industry.
              7.         The nominal tariff rate signifies the total increase in domestic productive activities compared to what would occur under free-trade conditions.
              8.         When material inputs enter a country at a very low duty while the final imported product is protected by a high duty, the result tends to be a high rate of protection for domestic producers of the final product.
              9.         According to the tariff escalation effect, industrial countries apply low tariffs to imports of finished goods and high tariffs to imports of raw materials.
              10.       Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, U.S. import duties apply only to the value added in the foreign assembly process, provided that U.S.-made components are used by overseas companies in their assembly operations.
              11.       Bonded warehouses and foreign trade zones have the effect of allowing domestic importers to postpone and prorate over time their import duty obligations.
              12.       A nation whose imports constitute a very small portion of the world market supply is a price taker, facing a constant world price for its import commodity.
              13.       Graphically, consumer surplus is represented by the area above the demand curve and below the product's market price.
              14.       Producer surplus is the revenue producers receive over and above the minimum necessary for production.
              15.       For a "small" country, a tariff raises the domestic price of an imported product by the full amount of the duty.
              16.       Although an import tariff provides the domestic government additional tax revenue, it benefits domestic consumers at the expense of domestic producers.
              17.       An import tariff reduces the welfare of a "small" country by an amount equal to the redistribution effect plus the revenue effect.
              18.       The deadweight losses of an import tariff consist of the protection effect plus the consumption effect.
              19.       The redistribution effect is the transfer of producer surplus to domestic consumers of the import-competing product.
              20.       As long as it is assumed that a nation accounts for a negligible portion of international trade, its levying an import tariff necessarily increases its overall welfare.
              21.       Changes in a "large" country's economic conditions or trade policies can affect the terms at which it trades with other countries.
              22.       A "large" country, that levies a tariff on imports, cannot improve the terms at which it trades with other countries.
              23.       For a "large" country, a tariff on an imported product may be partially absorbed by the domestic consumer via a higher purchase price and partially absorbed by the foreign producer via a lower export price.
              24.       If a "large" country levies a tariff on an imported good, its overall welfare increases if the monetary value of the tariff's consumption effect plus protective effect exceeds the monetary value of the terms-of-trade effect.
              25.       If a "small" country levies a tariff on an imported good, its overall welfare increases if the monetary value of the tariff's consumption effect plus protective effect is less than the monetary value of the terms-of-trade effect.
              26.       A tariff on steel imports tends to improve the competitiveness of domestic automobile companies.
              27.       If a tariff reduces the quantity of Japanese autos imported by the United States, over time it reduces the ability of Japan to import goods from the United States.
              28.       A compound tariff permits a specified amount of goods to be imported at one tariff rate while any imports above this amount are subjected to a higher tariff rate.
              29.       A tariff can be thought of as a tax on imported goods.
              30.       Although tariffs on imported steel may lead to job gains for domestic steel workers, they can lead to job losses for domestic auto workers.
              31.       Relatively low wages in Mexico make it impossible for U.S. manufacturers of labor-intensive goods to compete against Mexican manufacturers.
              32.       According to the infant-industry argument, temporary tariff protection granted to an infant industry will help it become competitive in the world market; when international competitiveness is achieved, the tariff should be removed.
  Exhibit 4.2
 In the absence of international trade, assume that the equilibrium price and quantity of motorcycles in Canada is $14,000 and 10 units respectively. Assuming that Canada is a small country that is unable to affect the world price of motorcycles, suppose its market is opened to international trade. As a result, the price of motorcycles falls to $12,000 and the total quantity demanded rises to 14 units; out of this total, 6 units are produced in Canada while 8 units are imported. Now assume that the Canadian government levies an import tariff of $1,000 on motorcycles.
             33.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. As a result of the tariff, the price of imported motorcycles equals $13,000 and imports total 4 cycles.
              34.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff leads to an increase in Canadian consumer surplus totaling $11,000.
              35.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff's redistribution effect equals $7,000.
              36.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff's revenue effect equals $6,000.
              37.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. All of the import tariff is shifted to the Canadian consumer via a higher price of motorcycles.
              38.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff leads to a deadweight welfare loss for Canada totaling $1,000.
              39.       Unlike a specific tariff, an ad valorem tariff differentiates between commodities with different values.
              40.       A limitation of a specific tariff is that it provides a constant level of protection for domestic commodities regardless of fluctuations in their prices over time.
              41.       A tariff quota is a combination of a specific tariff and an ad valorem tariff.
              42.       A specific tariff is expressed as a fixed percentage of the total value of an imported product.
              43.       The protective effect of a tariff occurs to the extent that less efficient domestic production is substituted for more efficient foreign production.
              44.       A tariff can increase the welfare of a "large" levying country if the favorable terms-of-trade effect more than offsets the unfavorable protective effect and consumption effect.
              45.       If the world price of steel is $600 per ton, a specific tariff of $120 per ton is equivalent to an ad valorem tariff of 25 percent.
              46.       An import tariff will worsen the terms of trade for a "small" country but improve the terms of trade for a "large" country.
              47.       Suppose that the tariff on imported steel is 40 percent, the tariff on imported iron ore is 20 percent, and 30 percent of the cost of producing a ton of steel consists of the iron ore it contains. The effective rate of protection of steel is approximately 49 percent.
              48.       There is widespread agreement among economists that import tariffs increase overall employment in the levying country.
              49.       Assume that the United States imports VCRs from South Korea at a price of $200 per unit and that these VCRs are subject to an import tariff of 20 percent. Also assume that U.S. components are used in the VCRs assembled by South Korea and that these components have a value of $100. Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported VCR to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is $220.
              50.       Assume that the United States imports televisions from Taiwan at a price of $300 per unit and that these televisions are subject to an import tariff of 25 percent. Also assume that U.S. components are used in the televisions assembled by Taiwan and that these components have a value of $100. Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported television to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is $375
  SHORT ANSWER
             1.         Can import duties have unintended side effects?
               2.         What happens to effective protection when the value added by the domestic producer declines?
  ESSAY
             1.         Is it possible for a low nominal tariff rate to understate the effective rate of protection? What is tariff escalation?
               2.         How can tariffs be justified?
  t
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ECO 305 Week 3 Quiz – Strayer
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 Quiz 2 Chapter 3 and 4
 CHAPTER 3
 SOURCES OF COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGE
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         Which of the following suggests that a nation will export the commodity in the production of which a great deal of its relatively abundant and cheap factor is used?
a.         The Linder theory
b.         The product life cycle theory
c.         The MacDougall theory
d.         The Heckscher-Ohlin theory
               2.         According to Staffan Linder, trade between two countries tends to be most pronounced when the countries:
a.         Find their tastes and preferences to be quite harmonious
b.         Experience economies of large-scale production over large output levels
c.         Face dissimilar relative abundances of the factors of production
d.         Find their per capita income levels to be approximately the same
               3.         Which of the following is a long-run theory, emphasizing changes in the trading position of a nation over a number of years?
a.         Theory of factor endowments
b.         Comparative advantage theory
c.         Theory of the product cycle
d.         Overlapping demand theory
               4.         The Leontief paradox questioned the validity of the theory of:
a.         Comparative advantage
b.         Factor endowments
c.         Overlapping demands
d.         Absolute advantage
               5.         Which of the following would least likely apply to the product life cycle theory?
a.         Calculators and computers
b.         Coal and crude oil
c.         Home movie cameras
d.         Office machinery
               6.         Classical trade theory emphasized which of the following as an underlying explanation of the basis for trade?
a.         Productivities of labor inputs
b.         Tastes and preferences among nations
c.         Changes in technologies over time
d.         Quantities of economic resources
               7.         Concerning the influence that transportation costs have on the location of industry, which of the following industries has generally attempted to locate production facilities close to resource supplies?
a.         Autos
b.         Steel
c.         Soft drinks
d.         Valuable electronics goods
               8.         Assume that Country A, in the absence of trade, finds itself relatively abundant in labor and relatively scarce in land. The factor endowment theory reasons that with free trade, the internal distribution of national income in Country A will change in favor of:
a.         Labor
b.         Land
c.         Both labor and land
d.         Neither labor nor land
               9.         When considering the effects of transportation costs, the conclusions of our trade model must be modified. This is because transportation costs result in:
a.         Lower trade volume, higher import prices, smaller gains from trade
b.         Lower trade volume, lower import prices, smaller gains from trade
c.         Higher trade volume, higher import prices, smaller gains from trade
d.         Higher trade volume, lower import prices, greater gains from trade
               10.       Most economists maintain that the major factor underlying wage stagnation in the United States in the 1990s has been:
a.         Import competition
b.         Technological change
c.         Rising real value of the minimum wage
d.         Increasing union membership
               11.       Assume the cost of transporting autos from Japan to Canada exceeds the pretrade price difference for autos between Japan and Canada. Trade in autos is:
a.         Impossible
b.         Possible
c.         Highly profitable
d.         Moderately profitable
               12.       Eli Heckscher and Bertil Ohlin are associated with the theory of comparative advantage that stresses differences in:
a.         Income levels among countries
b.         Tastes and preferences among countries
c.         Resource endowments among countries
d.         Labor productivities among countries
               13.       Hong Kong is relatively abundant in labor, while Canada is relatively abundant in capital. In both countries the production of shirts is relatively more labor intensive than the production of computers. According to the factor endowment theory, Hong Kong will have a(n):
a.         Absolute advantage in the production of shirts and computers
b.         Absolute advantage in the production of computers
c.         Comparative advantage in the production of shirts
d.         Comparative advantage in the production of computers
               14.       If Japanese workers receive lower wages in the production of autos than do American workers:
a.         Japan will have a comparative advantage in the production of autos
b.         Japan will have an absolute advantage in the production of autos
c.         Production costs will be lower in Japan than in the U.S.
d.         Production costs could be lower in the U.S. if American labor productivity is higher than the Japanese
               15.       Which trade theory suggests that a newly produced good, once exported, could ultimately end up being imported as the technology is transferred to lower- cost nations?
a.         Factor endowment theory
b.         Product life cycle theory
c.         Overlapping demand theory
d.         Comparative advantage theory
               16.       A firm is said to enjoy economies of scale over the range of output for which the long-run average cost is:
a.         Increasing
b.         Constant
c.         Decreasing
d.         None of the above
               17.       A product will be internationally traded as long as the pretrade price differential between the trading partners is:
a.         Greater than the cost of transporting it between them
b.         Equal to the cost of transporting it between them
c.         Less than the cost of transporting it between them
d.         None of the above
               18.       Which of the following suggests that by widening the market's size, international trade can permit longer production runs for manufacturers, which leads to increasing efficiency?
a.         Economies of scale
b.         Diseconomies of scale
c.         Comparative cost theory
d.         Absolute cost theory
               19.       The Leontief paradox:
a.         Was applied to the product life cycle theory
b.         Suggested that the U.S. exports labor-intensive goods
c.         Found that national income differences underlie world trade patterns
d.         Implied that diseconomies of scale occur at low output levels
               20.       Which of the following best applies to the theory of overlapping demands?
a.         Manufactured goods
b.         Services
c.         Primary products
d.         None of the above
               21.       The Heckscher-Ohlin theory explains comparative advantage as the result of differences in countries':
a.         Economies of large-scale production
b.         Relative abundance of various resources
c.         Relative costs of labor
d.         Research and development
               22.       Boeing aircraft company was able to cover its production costs of the first "jumbo jet" in the 1970s because Boeing could market it to several foreign airlines in addition to domestic airlines. This illustrates:
a.         How economies of scale make possible a larger variety of products in international trade
b.         A transfer of wealth from domestic consumers to domestic producers as the result of trade
c.         How a natural monopoly is forced to behave more competitively with international trade
d.         How a natural monopoly is forced to behave less competitively with international trade
               23.       Which trade theory contends that a country that initially develops and exports a new product may eventually become an importer of it and may no longer manufacture the product?
a.         Theory of factor endowments
b.         Theory of overlapping demands
c.         Economies of scale theory
d.         Product life cycle theory
               24.       The theory of overlapping demands predicts that trade in manufactured goods is unimportant for countries with very different:
a.         Tastes and preferences
b.         Expectations of future interest rate levels
c.         Per-capita income levels
d.         Labor productivities
               25.       The trade model of the Swedish economists Heckscher and Ohlin maintains that:
a.         Absolute advantage determines the distribution of the gains from trade
b.         Comparative advantage determines the distribution of the gains from trade
c.         The division of labor is limited by the size of the world market
d.         A country exports goods for which its resource endowments are most suited
               26.       According to the factor endowment model, countries heavily endowed with land will:
a.         Devote excessive amounts of resources to agricultural production
b.         Devote insufficient amounts of resources to agricultural production
c.         Export products that are land-intensive
d.         Import products that are land-intensive
               27.       For the United States, empirical studies indicate that over the past two decades the cost of international transportation relative to the value of U.S. imports has:
a.         Increased
b.         Decreased
c.         Not changed
d.         None of the above
               28.       Should international transportation costs decrease, the effect on international trade would include:
a.         An increase in the volume of trade
b.         A smaller gain from trade
c.         A decline in the income of home producers
d.         A decrease in the level of specialization in production.
               29.       That the division of labor is limited by the size of the market best applies to which explanation of trade?
a.         Factor endowment theory
b.         Product life cycle theory
c.         Economies of scale theory
d.         Overlapping demand theory
               30.       A larger variety of products results from international trade especially if:
a.         International trade affords producers monopoly power
b.         National governments levy import tariffs and quotas
c.         Producing goods entails increasing costs
d.         Economies of scale exist for producers
               31.       With economies of scale and decreasing unit costs, a country has the incentive to:
a.         Specialize completely in the product of its comparative advantage
b.         Specialize partially in the product of its comparative advantage
c.         Specialize completely in the product of its comparative disadvantage
d.         Specialize partially in the product of its comparative disadvantage
               32.       Proponents of ____ maintain that government should enact policies that encourage the development of emerging, "sunrise" industries.
a.         Product life cycle policy
b.         Static comparative advantage policy
c.         Intraindustry trade policy
d.         Industrial policy
               33.       Legislation requiring domestic manufacturers to install pollution abatement equipment tends to promote:
a.         Higher production costs and an increase in output
b.         Higher production costs and a decrease in output
c.         Lower production costs and an increase in output
d.         Lower production costs and a decrease in output
               34.       Stringent governmental regulations (e.g., air quality standards) imposed on domestic steel manufacturers tend to:
a.         Enhance their competitiveness in the international market
b.         Detract from their competitiveness in the international market
c.         Increase the profitability and productivity of domestic manufacturers
d.         Reduce the market share of foreign firms selling steel in the domestic market
               35.       Among the determinants underlying a country's international competitiveness in business services (e.g., construction) are:
a.         The potential scale economies afforded by a market's size
b.         Abundance of equipment including data processing facilities and computers
c.         Skills and capabilities of employees and their wage rates
d.         All of the above
               36.       The simultaneous import and export of computers by Germany is an example of:
a.         Intraindustry trade
b.         Interindustry trade
c.         Perfect competition
d.         Imperfect competition
               37.       Linder's theory of overlapping demand provides an explanation of:
a.         Product life cycle theory
b.         Factor endowment model
c.         Economies of large-scale production
d.         Intraindustry trade
               38.       Intraindustry trade can be explained in part by:
a.         Adam Smith's principle of absolute advantage
b.         Perfect competition in product markets
c.         Diseconomies of large scale production
d.         Transportation costs between and within nations
               39.       The Leontief paradox provided:
a.         Support for the principle of absolute advantage
b.         Support for the factor endowment model
c.         Evidence against the factor endowment model
d.         Evidence against the principle of absolute advantage
               40.       Which trade theory suggests that comparative advantage tends to shift from one nation to another as a product matures?
a.         Interindustry trade theory
b.         Intraindustry trade theory
c.         Product life cycle theory
d.         Overlapping demand theory
               41.       Which trade theory is tantamount to a short-run version of the factor price equalization theory?
a.         Specific factors theory
b.         Product life cycle theory
c.         Economies of scale theory
d.         Overlapping demand theory
               42.       According to the specific factors trade theory:
a.         Owners of factors specific to export industries suffer from trade, while owners of factors specific to import-competing industries gain
b.         Owners of factors specific to export industries gain from trade, while owners of factors specific to import-competing industries suffer
c.         Both owners of factors specific to export industries and owners of factors specific to import-competing industries gain from trade
d.         Both owners of factors specific to export industries and owners of factors specific to import-competing industries suffer from trade
               43.       Which nation has sometimes been characterized as being a "pollution haven" due to its lenient environmental standards that encourage the production of pollution-intensive goods?
a.         Japan
b.         Canada
c.         Germany
d.         Mexico
               44.       Boeing Inc. has criticized The Airbus Company's competitiveness on the grounds that Airbus benefits from:
a.         Import tariffs protecting Airbus in the European market
b.         Import quotas protecting Airbus in the European market
c.         Lenient environmental standards of European governments
d.         Production subsidies supplied by European governments
               45.       To justify the subsidies it has received from European governments, The Airbus Company has used all of the following arguments except:
a.         Its subsidies have prevented U.S. aircraft firms from holding a world-wide monopoly
b.         U.S. aircraft firms have benefited from military-sponsored programs of the U.S. government
c.         Airbus' subsidies were totally repaid as the firm realized profits on its aircraft sales
d.         Without subsidies to Airbus, Europe would be dependent on the United States as a supplier of aircraft
               46.       Expanding trade or technological improvements
a.         Increases the demand for skilled workers in the U.S.
b.         Decreases the demand for unskilled workers in the U.S.
c.         Increases the demand for unskilled workers in the U.S.
d.         Both a and b.
               47.       Economists agree that wages of unskilled workers are being held down by
a.         International trade
b.         Technology improvements
c.         Lack of education
d.         A combination of a, b, and c
               48.       The factor endowment theory states that comparative advantage is explained
a.         Exclusively by differences in relative supply conditions
b.         Exclusively by differences in relative national demand conditions
c.         Both supply and demand conditions
d.         None of the above
               49.       The factor endowment theory assumes
a.         Same tastes and preferences
b.         Factor inputs of uniform quality
c.         Same technology
d.         All of the above
               50.       In explaining international trade, the product life cycle theory focuses on
a.         Tastes and preferences
b.         The role of technological innovation
c.         Per-capita income levels of nations
d.         Both b and c
   TRUE/FALSE
             1.         According to Ricardian theory, comparative advantage depends on relative differences in labor productivity.
              2.         The Heckscher-Ohlin theory asserts that relative differences in labor productivity underlie comparative advantage.
              3.         The factor-endowment theory highlights the relative abundance of a nation's resources as the key factor underlying comparative advantage.
              4.         According to the factor-endowment theory, a nation will export that good for which a large amount of the relatively scarce resource is used.
              5.         According to the factor-endowment theory, a nation will import that good for which a large amount of the relatively abundant resource is used.
              6.         The Heckscher-Ohlin theory suggests that land-abundant nations will export land-intensive goods while labor-abundant nations will export labor-intensive goods.
              7.         The Heckscher-Ohlin theory contends that over a period of years a country that initially is an exporter of a product will become an importer of that product.
              8.         The Heckscher-Ohlin theory emphasizes the role that demand plays in the creation of comparative advantage.
              9.         The factor-endowment theory asserts that with specialization and trade there tends to occur an equalization in the relative resource prices of trading partners.
              10.       According to the factor-endowment theory, international specialization and trade cause a nation's cheap resource to become cheaper and a nation's expensive resource to become more expensive.
              11.       Fears about the downward pressure that cheap foreign workers place on U.S. wages have led U.S. labor unions to lobby for import restrictions such as tariffs and quotas.
              12.       According to the factor-price-equalization theory, international trade results in the relative differences in resource prices between nations being eliminated.
              13.       Empirical testing by Wassily Leontief gave support to the Heckscher-Ohlin theory of trade.
              14.       The Leontief Paradox was the first major challenge to the product-life-cycle theory of trade.
              15.       The Leontief Paradox suggested that, in contrast to the predictions of the factor-endowment theory, U.S. exports were less capital-intensive than U.S. import-competing goods.
              16.       The specific-factors theory analyzes the income distribution effects of trade in the short run when resources are immobile among industries.
              17.       Owners of resources specific to export industries tend to lose from international trade, while owners of factors specific to import-competing industries tend to gain.
              18.       The factor-price-equalization theory is a short-run version of the specific-factors theory.
              19.       With economies of scale, specialization in a few products allows a manufacturer to benefit from longer production runs which lead to decreasing average cost.
              20.       With decreasing costs, a country has an incentive to partially specialize in the product of its comparative advantage.
              21.       By widening the size of the domestic market, international trade permits companies to take advantage of longer production runs and increasing efficiencies such as mass production.
              22.       The theory of overlapping demands applies best to trade in manufactured goods.
              23.       Decreasing cost conditions lead to complete specialization in the production of the commodity of comparative advantage.
              24.       According to Staffan Linder, the factor endowment theory is useful in explaining trade patterns in manufactured goods, but not primary products.
              25.       The theory of overlapping demands asserts that trade in manufactured goods is stronger the less similar the demand structures of two countries.
              26.       The theory of overlapping demands contends that international trade in manufactured products is strongest among nations with similar income levels.
              27.       According to the theory of overlapping demands, trade in manufactured goods would be greater among two wealthy countries than among a wealthy country and a poor country.
              28.       Recent studies of U.S. resource endowments indicate that the United States is most abundant in unskilled labor, followed by semi-skilled labor and skilled labor.
              29.       Intraindustry trade would occur if computers manufactured in the United States by IBM are exported to Japan while the United States imports computers manufactured by Hitachi of Japan.
              30.       Because seasons in the Southern Hemisphere are opposite those in the Northern Hemisphere, one would expect intraindustry trade to occur in agricultural products.
              31.       Intraindustry trade can be explained by product differentiation, economies of scale, seasons of the year, and transportation costs.
              32.       According to the theory of intraindustry trade, many manufactured goods undergo a trade cycle in which the home country initially is an exporter and eventually becomes an importer of a product.
              33.       The product-life-cycle theory applies best to trade in primary products in the short run.
              34.       According to the product-life-cycle theory, the first stage of a product's trade cycle is when it is introduced to the home market.
              35.       According to the product life cycle theory, the last stage of a product's trade cycle is when it becomes an import-competing good.
              36.       Ricardo's theory of comparative advantage is a static theory that does not consider changes in international competitiveness over the long run.
              37.       Dynamic comparative advantage refers to the creation of comparative advantage through the mobilization of skilled labor, technology, and capital.
              38.       Industrial policy seeks to direct resources to declining industries in which productivity is low, linkages to the rest of the economy are weak, and future competitiveness is remote.
              39.       Europe's jumbo-jet manufacturer, Airbus, has justified receiving governmental subsidies on the grounds that the subsidies prevent the United States from becoming a monopoly in the jumbo-jet market.
              40.       The imposition of pollution-control regulations on domestic steel manufacturers leads to decreases in production costs and an improvement in the steel manufacturers' competitiveness.
              41.       Empirical studies conclude that U.S. environmental policies are a more important determinant of trade performance than capital, raw materials, labor skills, and wages.
              42.       Most developing countries have pollution-control laws and enforcement policies that are more stringent than those of the major industrial countries.
              43.       Although the theory of comparative advantage explains trade in manufactured goods, it has no explanatory value for trade in business services.
              44.       When transportation costs are added to our trade model, the low-cost exporting country produces less, consumes more, and exports less than that which occurs in the absence of transportation costs.
              45.       When transportation costs are added to our trade model, the degree of specialization in production between two countries increases as do the gains from trade.
              46.       In the absence of transportation costs, free trade results in the equalization of the prices of traded goods, as well as resource prices, in the trading nations.
              47.       In industries where the final product is much less weighty or bulky than the materials from which it is made, firms tend to locate production near resource supplies.
              48.       Industrial processes that add weight or bulk to a commodity are likely to be located near the resource market to minimize transportation costs.
              49.       A product will be traded only if the cost of transporting it between nations is less than the pretrade difference between their relative product prices.
              50.       Generally speaking, transportation costs are more important than production costs as a source of comparative advantage.
              51.       The product-life-cycle model contends that when a new product is introduced to the home market, it generally requires low-skilled labor to produce it.
              52.       According to the product life cycle model, comparative advantage shifts from cheap-labor countries to high-technology countries after a manufactured good becomes standardized.
  SHORT ANSWER
             1.         Does factor price equalization occur in the real world?
               2.         What is the focus of the product life cycle theory, and where is it applicable?
   ESSAY
             1.         Explain how immigration and trade may worsen wage inequality, and how college education may mitigate against that.
               2.         How does Staffan Linder explain world trade patterns?
    CHAPTER 4—TARIFFS
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         The imposition of tariffs on imports results in deadweight welfare losses for the home economy. These losses consist of the:
a.         Protective effect plus consumption effect
b.         Redistribution effect plus revenue effect
c.         Revenue effect plus protective effect
d.         Consumption effect plus redistribution effect
               2.         Suppose that the United States eliminates its tariff on steel imports, permitting foreign-produced steel to enter the U.S. market. Steel prices to U.S. consumers would be expected to:
a.         Increase, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would increase
b.         Decrease, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would increase
c.         Increase, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would decrease
d.         Decrease, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would decrease
               3.         A $100 specific tariff provides home producers more protection from foreign competition when:
a.         The home market buys cheaper products rather than expensive products
b.         It is applied to a commodity with many grade variations
c.         The home demand for a good is elastic with respect to price changes
d.         It is levied on manufactured goods rather than primary products
               4.         A lower tariff on imported aluminum would most likely benefit:
a.         Foreign producers at the expense of domestic consumers
b.         Domestic manufacturers of aluminum
c.         Domestic consumers of aluminum
d.         Workers in the domestic aluminum industry
               5.         When a government allows raw materials and other intermediate products to enter a country duty free, its tariff policy generally results in a:
a.         Effective tariff rate less than the nominal tariff rate
b.         Nominal tariff rate less than the effective tariff rate
c.         Rise in both nominal and effective tariff rates
d.         Fall in both nominal and effective tariff rates
               6.         Of the many arguments in favor of tariffs, the one that has enjoyed the most significant economic justification has been the:
a.         Infant industry argument
b.         Cheap foreign labor argument
c.         Balance of payments argument
d.         Domestic living standard argument
               7.         The redistribution effect of an import tariff is the transfer of income from the domestic:
a.         Producers to domestic buyers of the good
b.         Buyers to domestic producers of the good
c.         Buyers to the domestic government
d.         Government to the domestic buyers
               8.         Which of the following is true concerning a specific tariff?
a.         It is exclusively used by the U.S. in its tariff schedules.
b.         It refers to a flat percentage duty applied to a good's market value.
c.         It is plagued by problems associated with assessing import product values.
d.         It affords less protection to home producers during eras of rising prices.
               9.         The principal benefit of tariff protection goes to:
a.         Domestic consumers of the good produced
b.         Domestic producers of the good produced
c.         Foreign producers of the good produced
d.         Foreign consumers of the good produced
               10.       Which of the following policies permits a specified quantity of goods to be imported at one tariff rate and applies a higher tariff rate to imports above this quantity?
a.         Tariff quota
b.         Import tariff
c.         Specific tariff
d.         Ad valorem tariff
               11.       Assume the United States adopts a tariff quota on steel in which the quota is set at 2 million tons, the within-quota tariff rate equals 5 percent, and the over-quota tariff rate equals 10 percent. Suppose the U.S. imports 1 million tons of steel. The resulting revenue effect of the tariff quota would accrue to:
a.         The U.S. government only
b.         U.S. importing companies only
c.         Foreign exporting companies only
d.         The U.S. government and either U.S. importers or foreign exporters
               12.       When the production of a commodity does not utilize imported inputs, the effective tariff rate on the commodity:
a.         Exceeds the nominal tariff rate on the commodity
b.         Equals the nominal tariff rate on the commodity
c.         Is less than the nominal tariff rate on the commodity
d.         None of the above
               13.       Developing nations often maintain that industrial countries permit raw materials to be imported at very low tariff rates while maintaining high tariff rates on manufactured imports. Which of the following refers to the above statement?
a.         Tariff-quota effect
b.         Nominal tariff effect
c.         Tariff escalation effect
d.         Protective tariff effect
               14.       Should the home country be "large" relative to the world, its imposition of a tariff on imports would lead to an increase in domestic welfare if the terms-of-trade effect exceeds the sum of the:
a.         Revenue effect plus redistribution effect
b.         Protective effect plus revenue effect
c.         Consumption effect plus redistribution effect
d.         Protective effect plus consumption effect
               15.       Should Canada impose a tariff on imports, one would expect Canada's:
a.         Terms of trade to improve and volume of trade to decrease
b.         Terms of trade to worsen and volume of trade to decrease
c.         Terms of trade to improve and volume of trade to increase
d.         Terms of trade to worsen and volume of trade to increase
               16.       A beggar-thy-neighbor policy is the imposition of:
a.         Free trade to increase domestic productivity
b.         Trade barriers to increase domestic demand and employment
c.         Import tariffs to curb domestic inflation
d.         Revenue tariffs to make products cheaper for domestic consumers
               17.       A problem encountered when implementing an "infant industry" tariff is that:
a.         Domestic consumers will purchase the foreign good regardless of the tariff
b.         Political pressure may prevent the tariff's removal when the industry matures
c.         Most industries require tariff protection when they are mature
d.         Labor unions will capture the protective effect in higher wages
               18.       Tariffs are not defended on the ground that they:
a.         Improve the terms of trade of foreign nations
b.         Protect jobs and reduce unemployment
c.         Promote growth and development of young industries
d.         Prevent overdependence of a country on only a few industries
               19.       The deadweight loss of a tariff:
a.         Is a social loss since it promotes inefficient production
b.         Is a social loss since it reduces the revenue for the government
c.         Is not a social loss because society as a whole doesn't pay for the loss
d.         Is not a social loss since only business firms suffer revenue losses
               20.       Which of the following is a fixed percentage of the value of an imported product as it enters the country?
a.         Specific tariff
b.         Ad valorem tariff
c.         Nominal tariff
d.         Effective tariff
               21.       A tax of 20 cents per unit of imported cheese would be an example of:
a.         Compound tariff
b.         Effective tariff
c.         Ad valorem tariff
d.         Specific tariff
               22.       A tax of 15 percent per imported item would be an example of:
a.         Ad valorem tariff
b.         Specific tariff
c.         Effective tariff
d.         Compound tariff
               23.       Which type of tariff is not used by the American government?
a.         Import tariff
b.         Export tariff
c.         Specific tariff
d.         Ad valorem tariff
               24.       Which trade policy results in the government levying a "two-tier" tariff on imported goods?
a.         Tariff quota
b.         Nominal tariff
c.         Effective tariff
d.         Revenue tariff
               25.       If we consider the impact on both consumers and producers, then protection of the steel industry is:
a.         In the interest of the United States as a whole, but not in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
b.         In the interest of the United States as a whole and in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
c.         Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, but it might be in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
d.         Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, nor in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
               26.       If I purchase a stereo from South Korea, I obtain the stereo and South Korea obtains the dollars. But if I purchase a stereo produced in the United States, I obtain the stereo and the dollars remain in America. This line of reasoning is:
a.         Valid for stereos, but not for most products imported by the United States
b.         Valid for most products imported by the United States, but not for stereos
c.         Deceptive since Koreans eventually spend the dollars on U.S. goods
d.         Deceptive since the dollars spent on a stereo built in the United States eventually wind up overseas
               27.       The most vocal political pressure for tariffs is generally made by:
a.         Consumers lobbying for export tariffs
b.         Consumers lobbying for import tariffs
c.         Producers lobbying for export tariffs
d.         Producers lobbying for import tariffs
               28.       If we consider the interests of both consumers and producers, then a policy of tariff reduction in the U.S. auto industry is:
a.         In the interest of the United States as a whole, but not in the interest of auto-producing states
b.         In the interest of the United States as a whole, and in the interest of auto-producing states
c.         Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, nor in the interest of auto-producing states
d.         Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, but is in the interest of auto-producing states
               29.       Free traders point out that:
a.         There is usually an efficiency gain from having tariffs
b.         There is usually an efficiency loss from having tariffs
c.         Producers lose from tariffs at the expense of consumers
d.         Producers lose from tariffs at the expense of the government
               30.       A decrease in the import tariff will result in:
a.         An increase in imports but a decrease in domestic production
b.         A decrease in imports but an increase in domestic production
c.         An increase in price but a decrease in quantity purchased
d.         A decrease in price and a decrease in quantity purchased
   Figure 4.1 illustrates the demand and supply schedules for pocket calculators in Mexico, a "small" nation that is unable to affect the world price.
 Figure 4.1. Import Tariff Levied by a "Small" Country
               31.       Consider Figure 4.1. In the absence of trade, Mexico produces and consumes:
a.         10 calculators
b.         40 calculators
c.         60 calculators
d.         80 calculators
               32.       Consider Figure 4.1. In the absence of trade, Mexico's producer surplus and consumer surplus respectively equal:
a.         $120, $240
b.         $180, $180
c.         $180, $320
d.         $240, $240
               33.       Consider Figure 4.1. With free trade, Mexico imports:
a.         40 calculators
b.         60 calculators
c.         80 calculators
d.         100 calculators
               34.       Consider Figure 4.1. With free trade, the total value of Mexico's imports equal:
a.         $220
b.         $260
c.         $290
d.         $300
               35.       Consider Figure 4.1. With free trade, Mexico's producer surplus and consumer surplus respectively equal:
a.         $5, $605
b.         $25, $380
c.         $45, $250
d.         $85, $195
               36.       Consider Figure 4.1. With a per-unit tariff of $3, the quantity of imports decreases to:
a.         20 calculators
b.         40 calculators
c.         50 calculators
d.         70 calculators
               37.       According to Figure 4.1, the loss in Mexican consumer surplus due to the tariff equals:
a.         $225
b.         $265
c.         $285
d.         $325
               38.       According to Figure 4.1, the tariff results in the Mexican government collecting:
a.       �� $100
b.         $120
c.         $140
d.         $160
               39.       According to Figure 4.1, Mexican manufacturers gain ____ because of the tariff.
a.         $75
b.         $85
c.         $95
d.         $105
               40.       According to Figure 4.1, the deadweight cost of the tariff totals:
a.         $60
b.         $70
c.         $80
d.         $90
               41.       Consider Figure 4.1. The tariff would be prohibitive (i.e., eliminate imports) if it equaled:
a.         $2
b.         $3
c.         $4
d.         $5
   Assume the United States is a large consumer of steel that is able to influence the world price. Its demand and supply schedules are respectively denoted by DU.S. and SU.S. in Figure 4.2. The overall (United States plus world) supply schedule of steel is denoted by SU.S.+W.
 Figure 4.2. Import Tariff Levied by a "Large" Country
               42.       Consider Figure 4.2. With free trade, the United States achieves market equilibrium at a price of $____. At this price, ____ tons of steel are produced by U.S. firms, ____ tons are bought by U.S. buyers, and ____ tons are imported.
a.         $450, 5 tons, 60 tons, 55 tons
b.         $475, 10 tons, 50 tons, 40 tons
c.         $525, 5 tons, 60 tons, 55 tons
d.         $630, 30 tons, 30 tons, 0 tons
               43.       Consider Figure 4.2. Suppose the United States imposes a tariff of $100 on each ton of steel imported. With the tariff, the price of steel rises to $____ and imports fall to ____ tons.
a.         $550, 20 tons
b.         $550, 30 tons
c.         $575, 20 tons
d.         $575, 30 tons
               44.       Consider Figure 4.2. Of the $100 tariff, $____ is passed on to the U.S. consumer via a higher price, while $____ is borne by the foreign exporter; the U.S. terms of trade:
a.         $25, $75, improve
b.         $25, $75, worsen
c.         $75, $25, improve
d.         $75, $25, worsen
               45.       Referring to Figure 4.2, the tariff's deadweight welfare loss to the United States totals:
a.         $450
b.         $550
c.         $650
d.         $750
               46.       According to Figure 4.2, the tariff's terms-of-trade effect equals:
a.         $300
b.         $400
c.         $500
d.         $600
               47.       According to Figure 4.2, the tariff leads to the overall welfare of the United States:
a.         Rising by $250
b.         Rising by $500
c.         Falling by $250
d.         Falling by $500
               48.       Suppose that the production of $500,000 worth of steel in the United States requires $100,000 worth of iron ore. The U.S. nominal tariff rates for importing these goods are 15 percent for steel and 5 percent for iron ore. Given this information, the effective rate of protection for the U.S. steel industry is approximately:
a.         6 percent
b.         12 percent
c.         18 percent
d.         24 percent
               49.       Suppose that the production of a $30,000 automobile in Canada requires $10,000 worth of steel. The Canadian nominal tariff rates for importing these goods are 25 percent for automobiles and 10 percent for steel. Given this information, the effective rate of protection for the Canadian automobile industry is approximately:
a.         15 percent
b.         32 percent
c.         48 percent
d.         67 percent
   Exhibit 4.1
 Assume that the United States imports automobiles from South Korea at a price of $20,000 per vehicle and that these vehicles are subject to an import tariff of 20 percent. Also assume that U.S. components are used in the vehicles assembled by South Korea and that these components have a value of $10,000.
             50.       Refer to Exhibit 4.1. In the absence of the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported vehicle to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is:
a.         $22,000
b.         $23,000
c.         $24,000
d.         $25,000
               51.       Refer to Exhibit 4.1. Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported vehicle to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is:
a.         $22,000
b.         $23,000
c.         $24,000
d.         $25,000
               52.       Suppose an importer of steel is required to pay a tariff of $20 per ton plus 5 percent of the value of steel. This is an example of a (an):
a.         Specific tariff
b.         Ad valorem tariff
c.         Compound tariff
d.         Tariff quota
               53.       A compound tariff is a combination of a (an):
a.         Tariff quota and a two-tier tariff
b.         Revenue tariff and a protective tariff
c.         Import tariff and an export tariff
d.         Specific tariff and an ad valorem tariff
   Table 4.1. Production Costs and Prices of Imported and Domestic VCRs
 Imported VCRs          Domestic VCRs
Component parts         $150    Imported component parts      $150
Assembly cost/profit       50    Assembly cost     50
Nominal tariff     25    Profit       25
           ____                ____
Import price                Domestic price            
after tariff         225    after tariff         225
              54.       Consider Table 4.1. Prior to the tariff, the total price of domestically-produced VCRs is:
a.         $150
b.         $200
c.         $225
d.         $250
               55.       Consider Table 4.1. Prior to the tariff, the total price of imported VCRs is:
a.         $150
b.         $200
c.         $225
d.         $235
               56.       Consider Table 4.1. The nominal tariff rate on imported VCRs equals:
a.         11.1 percent
b.         12.5 percent
c.         16.7 percent
d.         50.0 percent
               57.       Consider Table 4.1. Prior to the tariff, domestic value added equals:
a.         $25
b.         $50
c.         $75
d.         $100
               58.       Consider Table 4.1. After the tariff, domestic value added equals:
a.         $25
b.         $50
c.         $75
d.         $100
               59.       Consider Table 4.1. The effective tariff rate equals:
a.         11.1 percent
b.         16.7 percent
c.         50.0 percent
d.         100.0 percent
               60.       If the domestic value added before an import tariff for a product is $500 and the domestic value added after the tariff is $550, the effective rate of protection is:
a.         5 percent
b.         8 percent
c.         10 percent
d.         15 percent
               61.       When a tariff on imported inputs exceeds that on the finished good,
a.         The nominal tariff rate on the finished product would tend to overstate its protective effect
b.         The nominal tariff rate would tend to understate it's protective effect
c.         It is impossible to determine the protective effect of a tariff
d.         Tariff escalation occurs
               62.       The offshore assembly provision in the U.S.
a.         Provides favorable treatment to U.S. trading partners
b.         Discriminates against primary product importers
c.         Provides favorable treatment to products assembled abroad from U.S. manufactured components
d.         Hurts the U.S. consumer
               63.       Arguments for U.S. trade restrictions include all of the following except
a.         Job protection
b.         Infant industry support
c.         Maintenance of domestic living standard
d.         Improving incomes for developing countries
               64.       For the United States, a foreign trade zone (FTZ) is
a.         A site within the United States
b.         A site outside the United States
c.         Always located in poorer developing countries
d.         Is used to discourage trade
   TRUE/FALSE
             1.         To protect domestic producers from foreign competition, the U.S. government levies both import tariffs and export tariffs.
              2.         With a compound tariff, a domestic importer of an automobile might be required to pay a duty of $200 plus 4 percent of the value of the automobile.
              3.         With a specific tariff, the degree of protection afforded domestic producers varies directly with changes in import prices.
              4.         During a business recession, when cheaper products are purchased, a specific tariff provides domestic producers a greater amount of protection against import-competing goods.
              5.         A ad valorem tariff provides domestic producers a declining degree of protection against import-competing goods during periods of changing prices.
              6.         With a compound duty, its "specific" portion neutralizes the cost disadvantage of domestic manufacturers that results from tariff protection granted to domestic suppliers of raw materials, and the "ad valorem" portion of the duty grants protection to the finished-goods industry.
              7.         The nominal tariff rate signifies the total increase in domestic productive activities compared to what would occur under free-trade conditions.
              8.         When material inputs enter a country at a very low duty while the final imported product is protected by a high duty, the result tends to be a high rate of protection for domestic producers of the final product.
              9.         According to the tariff escalation effect, industrial countries apply low tariffs to imports of finished goods and high tariffs to imports of raw materials.
              10.       Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, U.S. import duties apply only to the value added in the foreign assembly process, provided that U.S.-made components are used by overseas companies in their assembly operations.
              11.       Bonded warehouses and foreign trade zones have the effect of allowing domestic importers to postpone and prorate over time their import duty obligations.
              12.       A nation whose imports constitute a very small portion of the world market supply is a price taker, facing a constant world price for its import commodity.
              13.       Graphically, consumer surplus is represented by the area above the demand curve and below the product's market price.
              14.       Producer surplus is the revenue producers receive over and above the minimum necessary for production.
              15.       For a "small" country, a tariff raises the domestic price of an imported product by the full amount of the duty.
              16.       Although an import tariff provides the domestic government additional tax revenue, it benefits domestic consumers at the expense of domestic producers.
              17.       An import tariff reduces the welfare of a "small" country by an amount equal to the redistribution effect plus the revenue effect.
              18.       The deadweight losses of an import tariff consist of the protection effect plus the consumption effect.
              19.       The redistribution effect is the transfer of producer surplus to domestic consumers of the import-competing product.
              20.       As long as it is assumed that a nation accounts for a negligible portion of international trade, its levying an import tariff necessarily increases its overall welfare.
              21.       Changes in a "large" country's economic conditions or trade policies can affect the terms at which it trades with other countries.
              22.       A "large" country, that levies a tariff on imports, cannot improve the terms at which it trades with other countries.
              23.       For a "large" country, a tariff on an imported product may be partially absorbed by the domestic consumer via a higher purchase price and partially absorbed by the foreign producer via a lower export price.
              24.       If a "large" country levies a tariff on an imported good, its overall welfare increases if the monetary value of the tariff's consumption effect plus protective effect exceeds the monetary value of the terms-of-trade effect.
              25.       If a "small" country levies a tariff on an imported good, its overall welfare increases if the monetary value of the tariff's consumption effect plus protective effect is less than the monetary value of the terms-of-trade effect.
              26.       A tariff on steel imports tends to improve the competitiveness of domestic automobile companies.
              27.       If a tariff reduces the quantity of Japanese autos imported by the United States, over time it reduces the ability of Japan to import goods from the United States.
              28.       A compound tariff permits a specified amount of goods to be imported at one tariff rate while any imports above this amount are subjected to a higher tariff rate.
              29.       A tariff can be thought of as a tax on imported goods.
              30.       Although tariffs on imported steel may lead to job gains for domestic steel workers, they can lead to job losses for domestic auto workers.
              31.       Relatively low wages in Mexico make it impossible for U.S. manufacturers of labor-intensive goods to compete against Mexican manufacturers.
              32.       According to the infant-industry argument, temporary tariff protection granted to an infant industry will help it become competitive in the world market; when international competitiveness is achieved, the tariff should be removed.
  Exhibit 4.2
 In the absence of international trade, assume that the equilibrium price and quantity of motorcycles in Canada is $14,000 and 10 units respectively. Assuming that Canada is a small country that is unable to affect the world price of motorcycles, suppose its market is opened to international trade. As a result, the price of motorcycles falls to $12,000 and the total quantity demanded rises to 14 units; out of this total, 6 units are produced in Canada while 8 units are imported. Now assume that the Canadian government levies an import tariff of $1,000 on motorcycles.
             33.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. As a result of the tariff, the price of imported motorcycles equals $13,000 and imports total 4 cycles.
              34.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff leads to an increase in Canadian consumer surplus totaling $11,000.
              35.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff's redistribution effect equals $7,000.
              36.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff's revenue effect equals $6,000.
              37.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. All of the import tariff is shifted to the Canadian consumer via a higher price of motorcycles.
              38.       Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff leads to a deadweight welfare loss for Canada totaling $1,000.
              39.       Unlike a specific tariff, an ad valorem tariff differentiates between commodities with different values.
              40.       A limitation of a specific tariff is that it provides a constant level of protection for domestic commodities regardless of fluctuations in their prices over time.
              41.       A tariff quota is a combination of a specific tariff and an ad valorem tariff.
              42.       A specific tariff is expressed as a fixed percentage of the total value of an imported product.
              43.       The protective effect of a tariff occurs to the extent that less efficient domestic production is substituted for more efficient foreign production.
              44.       A tariff can increase the welfare of a "large" levying country if the favorable terms-of-trade effect more than offsets the unfavorable protective effect and consumption effect.
              45.       If the world price of steel is $600 per ton, a specific tariff of $120 per ton is equivalent to an ad valorem tariff of 25 percent.
              46.       An import tariff will worsen the terms of trade for a "small" country but improve the terms of trade for a "large" country.
              47.       Suppose that the tariff on imported steel is 40 percent, the tariff on imported iron ore is 20 percent, and 30 percent of the cost of producing a ton of steel consists of the iron ore it contains. The effective rate of protection of steel is approximately 49 percent.
              48.       There is widespread agreement among economists that import tariffs increase overall employment in the levying country.
              49.       Assume that the United States imports VCRs from South Korea at a price of $200 per unit and that these VCRs are subject to an import tariff of 20 percent. Also assume that U.S. components are used in the VCRs assembled by South Korea and that these components have a value of $100. Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported VCR to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is $220.
              50.       Assume that the United States imports televisions from Taiwan at a price of $300 per unit and that these televisions are subject to an import tariff of 25 percent. Also assume that U.S. components are used in the televisions assembled by Taiwan and that these components have a value of $100. Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported television to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is $375
  SHORT ANSWER
             1.         Can import duties have unintended side effects?
               2.         What happens to effective protection when the value added by the domestic producer declines?
  ESSAY
             1.         Is it possible for a low nominal tariff rate to understate the effective rate of protection? What is tariff escalation?
               2.         How can tariffs be justified?
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ECO 410 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer
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 Quiz 10 Chapter 19 and 20
 Working Capital Management
 19.1   Trident Brazil's Operating Cycle
 Multiple Choice
 1) Working capital management involves the management of:
A) current and long-term assets.
B) current assets and current liabilities.
C) current liabilities and long-term assets.
D) current liabilities and long-term debt and equity.
     2) The cash conversion cycle:
A) is a subset of the operating cycle.
B) occurs in the latter stages of the operating cycle.
C) is a subset of the accounts receivable period.
D) all of the above.
     3) The proper order of events for the operating cycle is:
A) input serving period, accounts receivable period, inventory period, quotation period.
B) quotation period, accounts receivable period, inventory period, input servicing period.
C) quotation period, input servicing period, inventory period, accounts receivable period.
D) accounts receivable period, input servicing period, quotation period, inventory period.
     4) TrinityApps Corporation (US) has bid a price on a project for a Korean firm, but the Korean firm has not yet placed an order. This portion of the operating cycle is best described as the:
A) quotation period.
B) input sourcing period.
C) cash conversion cycle.
D) accounts payable cycle.
    5) The period in the cash cycle where the customer places the order, and the firm determines what materials for manufacture are NOT in inventory is called the ________ period.
A) quotation
B) input sourcing
C) accounts payable
D) accounts receivable
     6) The accounts payable period of the operating cycle:
A) is equal to the inventory period.
B) may run concurrently but shorter than the inventory period.
C) may run concurrently but longer than the inventory period.
D) Any one of the above may be true.
     True/False
 1) Typically, the inventory period and the accounts payable period at least partially overlap in the firms operating cycle.
     2) Typically, the inventory period and the accounts receivable period at least partially overlap in the firms operating cycle.
     3) The operating cycle begins with the quotation period and ends with the accounts payable period.
     19.2   Trident's Repositioning Decisions
 Multiple Choice
 1) Of the following, which would NOT be a significant decision-making factor in a multinational firm's repositioning decision-making?
A) the subsidiary's tax environment (high or low)
B) the stability of the local currency
C) the ability to move capital in and out of the subsidiary's country
D) All of the above are significant factors.
     True/False
 1) In a country with a relatively high tax rate, it make sense the the MNE to reposition cash flows TO that country.
     2) The MNE would prefer to leave capital with a firm in a country with high growth prospects over the alternative of leaving capital with a firm in a country with low growth prospects (other factors equal).
     19.3   Constraints on Repositioning Funds
 Multiple Choice
 1) Each of the following is listed by your authors as a constraint on repositioning funds by an MNE EXCEPT:
A) political constraints.
B) tax constraints.
C) transaction costs.
D) All of the above are listed by your authors.
     True/False
 1) Local liquidity needs sometimes impact a firm's worldwide optimal cash position.
    2) The constraints on repositioning of funds that occur when exchanging one currency for another are considered to be primarily political constraints.
     3) Political constraints can block the transfer of funds either overtly or covertly. OVERT blockage occurs when dividends or other forms of fund remittances are severely limited, heavily taxed, or excessively delayed by the need for bureaucratic approval.
     19.4   Conduits for Moving Funds by Unbundling Them
 Multiple Choice
 1) ________ allows a multinational firm to recover funds from subsidiaries without piquing host country sensitivities over large dividend drains.
A) Unbundling funds
B) Bundling funds
C) Coordinating funds
D) none of the above
      2) Unbundling of funds by an MNE may be a useful practice for which of the following reasons?
A) An increase in the funds flow (charges) in any of the before-tax categories reduces the taxable profits of the foreign subsidiary if the host-country tax authorities acknowledge the charge as a legitimate expense.
B) An item-by-item matching of remittance to input, such as royalties for intellectual property, and fees for patents and advice, is equitable to the host country and foreign investor alike.
C) Unbundling facilitates allocation of overhead from a parent''s international division, so-called shared services, to each operating subsidiary in accordance with a predetermined formula.
D) All of the reasons listed above
    True/False
 1) If all investment inputs are unbundled, part of what might have been classified as residual profits may turn out to be tax-deductible expenses related to a specific purchased benefit.
     2) The before-tax/after-tax distinction is quite significant to a parent company attempting to repatriate funds in the most tax-efficient method if it is attempting to manage its own foreign tax credit/deficits between foreign units.
     19.5   International Dividend Remittances
 Multiple Choice
 1) In anticipation of a foreign exchange loss, an MNE may speed up the transfer of funds out of the company via dividends. When undertaking such an activity the MNE must be concerned with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) interest rate differences between the two countries.
B) the negative impact on host country relations.
C) defection on the part of executives in the home headquarters.
D) MNEs must be concerned with all of the above.
     True/False
 1) Political risk may motivate parent firms to require foreign subsidiaries to remit all locally generated funds above that required to internally finance growth in sales and planned capital expansions.
    19.6   Net Working Capital
 Multiple Choice
 1) One possible definition of net working capital (NWC) provided by your authors is:
A) NWC = A/R + inventory - A/P.
B) NWC = cash + A/P - inventory.
C) NWC = A/P + A/R - short-term loans.
D) NWC = A/R + inventory - long-term debt.
     2) Which of the following actions will result in an increase in NWC?
A) an increase in A/P that exceeds an increase in A/R
B) a reduction in inventory
C) a reduction in A/P plus a smaller reduction in A/R
D) an increase in A/P and a smaller reduction in inventory
     3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) A/R provide part of the funding for inventory.
B) A/P provide part of the funding for A/R and inventory.
C) Inventory pays for A/R and A/P.
D) None of the above is true.
     TABLE 19.1
Use the information to answer following question(s).
                                        TrinityApps Corporation Balance Sheet December 31, 20xx
   4) Refer to Table 19.1. The NWC for TrinityApps is:
A) $80,000
B) $680,000
C) $35,000
D) $45,000
     5) Refer to Table 19.1. If TrinityApps increases inventory by $10,000 and A/P also by $10,000, the net change in NWC is:
A) $20,000
B) $10,000
C) $0
D) none of the above
     6) Refer to Table 19.1. NWC currently makes up what percentage of total firm value for TrinityApps?
A) 6.6%
B) 5.1%
C) 11.8%
D) 9.2%
     Instruction 19.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).
 Sunny Manufacturing Systems Inc. is supplied with plastic chips for their plastic injection molding manufacturing process. Their supplier, Sun Chemical, Inc. offers financing terms of a 2% discount if the accounts payable are paid in 10 days or less with the full balance due in 45 days. Short-term financing available to Sunny Manufacturing is available at an annual rate of 9.6%. Sunny Manufacturing has just purchased $400,000 of plastic chips from Sun Chemical.
 7) Refer to Instruction 19.1. What is the amount of money Sunny Manufacturing will save on accounts payable if they accept the discount?
A) $400,000
B) $8,000
C) $33,333
D) $20,000
     8) Refer to Instruction 19.1. What is the effective annual interest cost of supplier financing offered by Sun Chemical?
A) 7.3%
B) 9.5%
C) 10.4%
D) 22.9%
     9) Refer to Instruction 19.1. Should Sunny Manufacturing take the discount offered by Sun Chemical?
A) Yes, Sunny Manufacturing will get to use their raw materials 35 days earlier than if they waited to pay at the end of the 45 days.
B) No, Sunny Manufacturing will not have to pay any interest if they just pay in 45 days.
C) Yes, Sunny Manufacturing's short term borrowing rate of 9.6% is less than Sun's offered cost of carry of 22.9%.
D) No, it costs Sunny Manufacturing 22.9% to accept the discount and they are better off paying the full amount in 45 days.
     10) Days working capital is equal to:
A) days payables + days receivables - days inventory.
B) days inventory + days receivables - days payables.
C) days payables + days inventory + days receivables.
D) none of the above
     11) Amundsen of Norway receives raw materials from their corporate parent in the U.S. with payment terms of net 60 days. Most of their sales are to firms in Norway where normal payment terms are net 30 days. This causes a problem for the subsidiary with working capital management because:
A) accounts receivable are so much longer than accounts payable.
B) accounts payable are so much longer than accounts receivable.
C) accounts receivable and accounts payable are equal.
D) This doesn't really cause a problem; in fact it is to the benefit of the Norwegian subsidiary.
     True/False
 1) In principle, the firm tries to minimize its NWC balance.
     2) Other things equal, managers prefer a lower "days working capital" to a higher one.
     3) The authors present empirical evidence that shows the days sales basis for working capital to be 30 days GREATER in the U.S. compared to a similar industry in Europe.
     Essay
 1) What is a free-trade zone? Identify three techniques and provide examples of how firms and countries can benefit from having free trade zones.
   19.7   International Cash Management
 Multiple Choice
 1) Other things equal, a firm would rather have ________ in a depreciating currency, and ________ in an appreciating currency.
A) accounts receivable; accounts payable
B) accounts receivable; accounts receivable
C) accounts payable; accounts receivable
D) none of the above
      2) Which of the following is NOT a precautionary motive for holding cash?
A) Anticipated funds to be remitted from several Middle East countries are in question due to unrest in the region.
B) The firm has several short-term obligations in unhedged foreign currency-denominated contracts.
C) The firm must pay ordinary wages in two days.
D) All are precautionary motives.
    3) Increases to cash flows can be anticipated if which of the following occurs?
A) A receivables contract is denominated in an appreciating foreign currency.
B) Sales are less than anticipated.
C) Days in accounts receivable increase by 15 days.
D) none of the above
     4) A centralized depository benefits the firm primarily by:
A) reducing the cost of repatriating funds.
B) positioning profits where taxes are lowest.
C) reducing the total amount of capital employed within the total firm.
D) earning a higher rate of return than in domestic banking deposits.
     5) The Clearing House Interbank Payment System (CHIPS) is:
A) the largest publicly operated payments system in the world.
B) owned and operated by the world's seven largest central banks.
C) a computerized network that connects banks globally.
D) none of the above
      6) An organizational structure employed by an MNE to reduce its use of bank lending for the support of operations is:
A) a centralized depository.
B) a reinvoicing center.
C) a cost center.
D) a syndicated bank.
     7) ________ is the process that cancels via offset all, or part, of the debt owed by one entity to another related entity.
A) Syndicated banking
B) Centralized depositing
C) Multilateral netting
D) Debt cancellation
    True/False
 1) In an inflationary economy, demand for credit usually exceeds supply.
     2) For disbursement purposes, it is to the benefit of the firm to minimize float.
     3) Regarding wire transfers, CHIPS actually clears transactions whereas SWIFT does not.
      4) A significant problem with centralized cash depositories is that they are isolated from the rest of the firm and tend to be at an information disadvantage.
     5) A reason for holding all precautionary balances in a central pool is that the total pool, if centralized, can be reduced in size without any loss in the level of protection.
     6) A disadvantage of a centralized cash management system is that managers will not be able to get the lowest average rate available for the firm. Instead, it misses out on the really low borrowing rates.
    Essay
 1) Central depositories are used for international cash management. What is a central depository? Identify and provide examples of at least three advantages to MNEs of having a central depository.
    19.8   Financing Working Capital
 Multiple Choice
 1) A precautionary cash balance:
A) is used to replace spoiled or damaged inventory.
B) is held to facilitate cash disbursements when receipts slow down.
C) is used for normal day-to-day operations.
D) is held for the benefit of a sister affiliate.
     2) An in-house bank:
A) is a separate bank chartered to operate within a business firm.
B) is in fact a set of functions performed by the firm's existing treasury department.
C) assesses the credit standing of the bank's customers.
D) provides banking services for employees.
    3) A foreign banking office that is separately incorporated in the host country is:
A) a correspondent bank.
B) a representative office.
C) a bank subsidiary.
D) an Edge Act corporation.
     True/False
 1) An Edge Act corporation is a subsidiary of a U.S. bank located outside of the U.S. and incorporated to engage in international banking and financing operations.
      2) Because they are direct payments, dividends are among the most efficient way for foreign subsidiaries to remit funds back to the parent.
     3) Even though dividends are cash payments, firms typically must consider both cash flow and net income when making dividend distribution decisions.
     Chapter 20   International Trade Finance
 20.1   The Trade Relationship
 Multiple Choice
 1) The exporter-importer relationship to a corporation of a foreign importer that has not previously conducted business with the firm would be an:
A) unaffiliated known.
B) affiliated party.
C) unaffiliated unknown.
D) any of the above
     2) Which of the following relationships between importing and exporting parties would require the least detailed contract to conduct business?
A) affiliated party
B) unaffiliated unknown party
C) known unaffiliated party
D) domestic supplier
     3) Polaris Corporation has made an agreement to ship goods to a foreign firm with whom they have not entered into a contract for three years. However, the firms have communicated regularly since the last sale three years ago. This is an example of an:
A) unaffiliated known party transaction.
B) unaffiliated unknown party transaction.
C) affiliated party transaction.
D) none of the above
      True/False
 1) Today, international trade is dominated by transactions between unaffiliated parties (known or unknown).
    2) Because most international transactions are between affiliated parties, international transaction contracts are less complex, but the management of the total value of the MNE is more complex.
     3) An advantage of trading with an affiliated party for an MNE, compared to an unaffiliated party, could be reduced contracting costs and less to even no need to protect against nonpayment.
     20.2   The Trade Dilemma
 Multiple Choice
 1) Which of the following is NOT a financial instrument that may be included in an international trade transaction?
A) Letter of Credit
B) Sight Draft
C) Order bill of lading
D) Federal funds transaction
     True/False
 1) The fundamental dilemma of foreign trade is being unwilling to trust a stranger in a foreign land.
     20.3   Benefits of the System
 Multiple Choice
 1) The combination of a letter of credit, a sight draft, and an order bill of lading protect both parties in international transactions from which of the following?
A) the risk of noncompletion
B) the risk of foreign exchange risk (when combined with a various hedging techniques)
C) the risk that financing will not be available due to foreign exchange risk
D) All of these risks are reduced when using these trade implements.
    True/False
 1) If a foreign exchange transaction calls for payment in the importer's currency, the exporter has the foreign exchange risk.
     2) If a foreign exchange transaction calls for payment in the exporter's currency, the importer has the foreign exchange risk.
     3) In the case of international trade, the risk of nonpayment is essentially eliminated with the use of a letter of credit issued through a trustworthy bank.
      20.4   Key Documents
 Multiple Choice
 1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding a letter of credit?
A) The importer and exporter agree on a transaction.
B) The importer applies to its local bank for the issuance of a letter of credit.
C) The exporter applies to its local bank for the issuance of a letter of credit.
D) The importer's bank cuts a sales contract based on its assessment of the creditworthiness of the importer.
     2) A/An ________ letter of credit is intended to serve as a means of arranging payment, but not as a guarantee of payment.
A) irrevocable
B) revocable
C) confirmed
D) unconfirmed
    3) A/An ________ letter of credit is an obligation only of the issuing bank whereas other banks honor a/an ________ letter of credit.
A) irrevocable; unconfirmed
B) revocable; confirmed
C) confirmed; irrevocable
D) unconfirmed; confirmed
     4) A letter of credit that is confirmed in the ________ country has the additional advantage of eliminating the problem of ________.
A) exporter's; portfolio risk
B) importer's; blocked foreign exchange
C) exporter's; blocked foreign exchange
D) none of the above
     5) The draft is the instrument normally used in international commerce to:
A) transfer product.
B) prove ownership.
C) transfer title.
D) initiate the sale.
     6) The ________ is the instrument normally used to actually effect payment in international commerce.
A) banker's acceptance
B) bill of exchange
C) bill of lading
D) letter of credit
     7) The person or company initiating the draft or bill of exchange is known as the:
A) maker.
B) drawer.
C) originator.
D) any of the above
    8) The person or company to whom the draft or bill of exchange is addressed is the:
A) drawee.
B) drawer.
C) maker.
D) originator.
      9) Drafts that have been accepted by banks become:
A) clean drafts.
B) nonmarketable.
C) banker's acceptances.
D) none of the above
     10) Which of the following purposes is NOT served by the bill of lading?
A) It acts as a receipt.
B) It acts as a contract.
C) It acts as a document of title.
D) It acts as all of the above.
     11) The ________ is issued to the exporter by a common carrier transporting the merchandise.
A) bill of lading
B) draft
C) banker's acceptance
D) line of credit
     12) A straight bill of lading is most likely to be used under which of the following circumstances?
A) when the merchandise has not been paid for in advance
B) when the transaction is being financed by a bank
C) when the shipment is to an affiliate
D) none of the above
     13) To become a negotiable instrument, a draft must conform to the following requirements EXCEPT:
A) it must be in writing and signed by the maker or drawer.
B) it must be payable to order or to bearer.
C) it must be written in English.
D) it must be payable on demand or at a fixed or determinable future date.
     True/False
 1) A letter of credit is an agreement by the bank to pay against documents rather than the actual merchandise.
     2) The primary advantage of a letter of credit is that it reduces risk.
     3) The major advantage of a letter of credit to the exporter is that the exporter does not receive any funds until the documents have arrived at a local port or airfield.
     4) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the issuing bank must receive a fee or other valid business consideration for issuing the L/C.
      5) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the bank's L/C must contain a specified expiration date or a definite maturity.
    6) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the bank's commitment must be open-ended and cannot have a stated maximum amount of money.
     7) A revocable L/C is intended to serve as a means of arranging payment but not as a guarantee of payment.
     8) A sight draft is payable on presentation to the drawee; a time draft allows a delay in payment.
     9) A draft is sometimes called a revocable letter of credit.
    10) A time draft is payable on presentation to the drawee; the drawee must pay at once or dishonor the draft. A sight draft, allows a delay in payment.
     11) The bill of lading is issued to the exporter by a common carrier transporting the merchandise. It serves three purposes: a receipt, a contract, and a document of title.
     Essay
 1) Explain what a letter of credit (L/C) is, who the principle parties are, what the principle advantage is, and how the L/C facilitates international trade.
   20.5   Example: Documentation in a Typical Trade Transaction
 Multiple Choice
 1) In a typical international trade transaction, the order of activity would be which of the following?
A) The foreign buyer places an order; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer's bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer's bank for acceptance; The buyer's bank submits payment to the manufacturer's bank.
B) The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The buyer's bank submits payment to the manufacturer's bank; The foreign buyer places an order; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer's bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer's bank for acceptance.
C) The foreign buyer places an order; The manufacturer's bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer's bank for acceptance; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The buyer's bank submits payment to the manufacturer's bank.
D) The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer's bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer's bank for acceptance; The foreign buyer places an order; The buyer's bank submits payment to the manufacturer's bank.
    True/False
 1) Because of the risks involved in international trade, most transactions follow conventional methods and rarely require flexibility or creativity on the part of management.
 Comment:  Few international transactions are typical and often require flexibility or creativity on the part of management.
    20.6   Government Programs to Help Finance Exports
 Multiple Choice
 1) The Export-Import Bank is an independent agency of the U.S. government established in 1934 to:
A) ship money abroad.
B) import agricultural products during the recession.
C) facilitate and stimulate foreign trade of the United States.
D) none of the above
     2) In the United States, the Foreign Credit Insurance Corporation:
A) is a subsidiary of the Export-Import Bank.
B) provides letters of credit for U.S. importers.
C) provides letters of credit for U.S. exporters.
D) provides policies that protect U.S. exporters against default by foreign importers.
     Instruction 20.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).
 Cypress Systems Inc., of Florida, agrees to sell specialized hydroponic growing equipment to Landcaster's of Australia. Because the two companies have never done business with each other, Cypress requires a banker's acceptance as payment for the $1,000,000 order. The banker's acceptance carries a 1.4% commission per annum and payment is to be received in 6 months. If Cypress Inc. chooses to discount or sell the bankers acceptance to its bank, the discount rate is 1.00% per annum.
 3) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the size of the discount (not including the commission fee) Cypress must take for receiving the proceeds of the sale today rather than waiting for six months?
A) $7,000
B) $5,000
C) $12,000
D) $14.000
     4) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the size of the commission Cypress will pay the bank for the banker's acceptance?
A) $7,000
B) $5,000
C) $12,000
D) $14,000
     5) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the total Cypress can expect to receive if the firm takes payment today?
A) $993,000
B) $995,000
C) $988,000
D) $996,000
      6) Refer to Instruction 20.1. ________ is an unsecured promissory note.
A) A banker's acceptance
B) An overdraft
C) A securitized loan
D) Commercial paper
    7) Rogue Spices Inc. has a Canadian receivables contract for $200,000 due in 270 days. The firm has been approached by a factoring firm that offers to purchase the receivables at a 12% per annum discount plus a 1% charge for a nonrecourse clause. What is the annualized percentage all-in-cost of this factoring alternative?
A) 14.82%
B) 13.00%
C) 12.00%
D) 9.09%
     True/False
 1) The Foreign Credit Insurance Association is a branch of the U.S. federal government.
     2) The Export-Import Bank (also called Eximbank) is an independent agency of the U.S. government, established in 1934 to stimulate and facilitate the foreign trade of the United States.
     3) Essentially, the Eximbank lends dollars to borrowers inside the United States for the purchase of U.S. goods and services.
     4) Banker's acceptances can be used to finance only international trade receivables but not domestic trade receivables.
    Essay
 1) What is a banker's acceptance? How are they initiated? Why are they desirable for the exporter?
    20.7   Forfaiting: Medium- and Long-Term Financing
 Multiple Choice
 1) ________ is a specialized technique to eliminate the risk of nonpayment by importers in instances where the importing firm and/or its government is perceived by the exporter to be too risky for open account credit.
A) Forfeiting
B) Marketable Bank Shares
C) Forfaiting
D) Banker's Acceptances
     True/False
 1) In effect, the forfaiter functions both as a money market firm and a specialist in packaging financial deals involving country risk.
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ECO 302 Week 6 Quiz - Strayer
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 Chapter 8 and 9
 TRUE/FALSE
             1.         Intertemporal substitution effects are substitution effects over time.
              2.         When the marginal product of labor increases due to a positive technology change, the real wage falls.
              3.         The model predicts that in response to a permanent positive change in technology real consumption will be procyclical.
              4.         An increase in the interest rate makes future consumption cheaper and future leisure more expensive.
              5.         The income effect on labor supply is positive.
              6.         A trend line for U.S. GDP since World War II is mostly flat.
              7.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will increase the real wage rate.
              8.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will decrease the interest rate.
              9.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will decrease the interest rate.
              10.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that the real wage will be procyclical.
              11.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that the real rental price of capital will be procyclical.
              12.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that real investment will be countercyclical.
  MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         The cyclical part of real GDP is
a.         trend real GDP less real GDP.            c.         real GDP/trend real GDP.
b.         real GDP less trend real GDP.            d.         trend real GDP/real GDP.
               2.         Real GDP equals:
a.         trend real GDP plus the cyclical part of GDP            c.         trend real GDP less the cyclical part of GDP.
b.         trend real GDP times the cyclical part of GDP.         d.         trend real GDP divided by the cyclical part of GDP.
               3.         An equilibrium business-cycle model:
a.         uses shocks to GDP to find equilibrium conditions.  c.         uses equilibrium conditions to determine how shocks affect real GDP and other macroeconomic variables. .
b.         uses GDP to find equilibrium shocks to the economy.           d.         uses GDP to find equilibrium conditions.
               4.         An increase in the level of technology, A, causes:
a.         an increase in the MPL           c.         a movement along the MPL hiring more labor.
b.         a decrease in the MPL            d.         a movement along the MPL hiring less labor.
               5.         The model predicts that an economic expansion caused by an increase in technology, A, will:
a.         drive down the real wage.      c.         drive up the real wage.
b.         cause labor supply to be greater than labor demand.  d.         lead to a relatively low real wage.
               6.         The model predicts that in a recession caused by an decrease in technology, A, we would observe:
a.         a relatively low real wage.      c.         a relatively high real wage.
b.         an excess demand for labor.   d.         an increase in the MPL
               7.         If technology, A, increases, then:
a.         the MPK and the demand for capital services increase.         c.         the MPK increases and the demand for capital services decreases.
b.         the MPK and the demand for capital services decrease.        d.         the MPK decreases and the demand for capital services increases.
               8.         The model predicts that if there is a technology, A, shock, the real rental price of capital will:
a.         be relatively high during an economic expansion or a recession.        c.         be relatively high during an economic expansion and relatively low during a recession.
b.         be relatively low during an economic expansion or a recession.         d.         be relatively low during an economic expansion and relatively high during a recession.
               9.         The model predicts that if there is a technology, A, shock, the interest rate, i, will be:
a.         relatively high during an economic expansion or a recession.            c.         relatively high during an economic expansion and relatively low during a recession.
b.         relatively low during an economic expansion or a recession. d.         relatively low during an economic expansion and relatively high during a recession.
               10.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to rise due to the income effect. c.         tend to fall due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         may rise or fall depending on whether the income effect is greater than the substitution effect or not.       d.            all of the above.
               11.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to fall due to the income effect. c.         tend to rise due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         may rise or fall depending on whether the income effect is greater than the substitution effect or not.       d.            all of the above.
               12.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to rise due to the income effect. c.         tend to rise due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         be unchanged. d.         tend to fluctuate.
               13.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to fall due to the income effect. c.         tend to fall due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         be unchanged. d.         tend to fluctuate.
               14.       If technology, A, increases permanently then we would expect:
a.         consumption to decrease as the substitution effect would be greater than the income effect of the change.            c.         consumption to increase as the substitution effect would be greater than the income effect of the change.
b.         consumption to increase as the income effect would be greater than the substitution effect of the change.            d.         consumption to decrease as the income effect would be greater than the substitution effect of the change.
               15.       If there is a permanent increase in technology, A, then we expect consumption to:
a.         increase by more than real GDP.        c.         increase but by less than real GDP.
b.         increase by the same amount as real GDP.     d.         be unchanged.
               16.       If there were a permanent increase in technology, A, we would expect real saving to:
a.         increase as the increase in real consumption is less than real GDP.    c.         decrease as the increase in real consumption is more than real GDP.
b.         increase as the increase in real consumption is more than real GDP.  d.         decrease as the increase in real consumption is less than real GDP.
               17.       A variable that moves in the same direction as real GDP is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               18.       A variable that has little tendency to move during a business cycle is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               19.       A variable that moves in the opposite direction as real GDP is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               20.       An acyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               21.       An procyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               22.       An countercyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               23.       US real consumer expenditure since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
        ��      24.       US real gross domestic private investment since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               25.       Since 1954, in the US:
a.         real gross private investment has varied more than real GDP, while real consumer expenditure has varied less than real GDP.            c.         real gross private investment has varied less than real GDP, while real consumer expenditure has varied more than real GDP.
b.         real gross private investment and real consumer expenditure have varied more than real GDP.       d.         real gross private investment and real consumer expenditure have varied less than real GDP.
               26.       US real average earnings of production workers since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               27.       US real rental price of capital since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical rather countercyclical as the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical rather procyclical as the model predicts.
               28.       An example of a temporary change in technology would be:
a.         a new discovery.         c.         a harvest failure.
b.         a new invention.          d.         all of the above.
               29.       An example of a temporary change in technology would be:
a.         a new discovery.         c.         a new invention.
b.         a general strike.           d.         all of the above.
               30.       With a temporary change in technology the model predicts:
a.         the interest rate will be procyclical.    c.         a higher interest rate will motivate households to increase current real saving.
b.         a lower interest rate will motivate households to  increase current real consumption.           d.         all of the above.
               31.       With a temporary change in technology the model predicts:
a.         the interest rate will be procyclical.    c.         a higher interest rate will motivate households to decrease current real saving.
b.         a lower interest rate will motivate households to decrease current real consumption.           d.         all of the above.
               32.       With a temporary change in technology, we would expect:
a.         the income effect of consumption to be larger.          c.         the intertemporal substitution effect on consumption to be larger.
b.         the income effect of consumption to be smaller.        d.         the intertemporal substitution effect on consumption to be larger.
               33.       With a temporary positive change in technology we would expect real current consumption:
a.         to increase a lot.          c.         to remain unchanged.
b.         to decrease a lot.         d.         to either increase or decrease a little.
               34.       With a temporary change in technology, A, we expect little change in consumption because:
a.         the income effect on consumption is larger.   c.         the intertemporal-substitution effect is larger.
b.         the income effect on consumption is smaller.             d.         the intertemporal-substitution effect is smaller.
               35.       The model predicts that an economic expansion caused by a  temporary increase in technology, A, would lead to:
a.         high real GDP and investment.           c.         low real GDP and investment.
b.         low real GDP and high real investment.         d.         high real GDP and low real investment.
               36.       Temporary changes in technology, A, conflict with the data in that:
a.         investment is clearly acyclical.            c.         the wage rate is clearly countercyclical.
b.         consumption is clearly procyclical.     d.         all of the above.
               37.       A higher real wage:
a.         makes consumption more expensive.  c.         makes leisure less expensive.
b.         makes it a worse deal for households to work an extra hour. d.         makes leisure more expensive.
               38.       A higher real wage:
a.         increases the income of households inducing them to work more.    c.         increases the income of households inducing them to work less.
b.         decreases the income of households inducing them to work more.   d.         decreases the income of households inducing them to work less.
               39.       The overall effect of a higher real wage is:
a.         to increase labor as the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.            c.         to decrease labor as the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.
b.         ambiguous on labor as the income and substitution effect work against each other.             d.         ambiguous because the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.
               40.       We expect that an increase in real wages will:
a.         increase labor supply, if temporary.    c.         increase labor supply, whether permanent or temporary.
b.         increase labor supply, if permanent.    d.         reduce labor supply, whether permanent or temporary.
               41.       An increase in the interest rate induces worker to:
a.         work more in the current period and less in the future.          c.         work less in the current period and more in the future.
b.         work more in the current period and in the future.     d.         work less in the current period and in the future.
               42.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         future consumption cheaper.   c.         current consumption more expensive.
b.         future leisure cheaper. d.         all of the above.
               43.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         future consumption and leisure more expensive.        c.         future consumption and leisure cheaper.
b.         future consumption cheaper and future leisure more expensive.        d.         future consumption more expensive and future leisure cheaper.
               44.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         current consumption and leisure more expensive.      c.         current consumption and leisure cheaper.
b.         current consumption cheaper and current. leisure more expensive.    d.         current consumption more expensive and current leisure cheaper.
               45.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         current consumption and future leisure more expensive.        c.         current consumption and future leisure cheaper.
b.         current consumption cheaper and future. leisure more expensive.     d.         current consumption more expensive and future leisure cheaper.
               46.       Intertemporal substitution effects motivate households to:
a.         supply more labor when the wage rate is temporarily low.     c.         supply less labor when the wage rate is temporarily low.
b.         supply more labor when the wage rate is permanently low.   d.         supply more labor when the wage rate is permanently low.
               47.       In the US since 1964 total hours worked and employment have been:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               48.       The measure of labor productivity used in the popular media is:
a.         Y/L      c.         procyclical.
b.         average product of labor.        d.         all of the above.
               49.       In the model with an upward sloping supply curve of labor and increase demand for labor due to a positive technological, A, change:
a.         increases employment and the real wage.      c.         decreases employment and the real wage.
b.         decreases employment and increases the real wage.   d.         decreases employment and increases the real wage.
               50.       When the labor supply of households is allowed to slope upward:
a.         the model predictions match the observed data that employment and real wages are countercyclical.         c.            the model predictions do not match the observed data that employment and real wages are procyclical.
b.         the model predictions do not match the observed data that employment and real wages are countercyclical.            d.         the model predictions match the observed data that employment and real wages are procyclical.
               51.       The most important feature of U.S. real GDP in the post-World War II era most likely is
a.         the overall upward trend.        c.         the large fluctuations relative to trend.
b.         the high standard deviation from trend.         d.         the many recessions related to politics.
               52.       The equilibrium business cycle model, unlike the long-run Solow growth model, assumes that
a.         changes in capital are important.         c.         the interest rate always rises.
b.         changes in capital are insignificant.    d.         the cyclical growth in GDP is positive.
               53.       Suppose that the economy suffers a major natural disaster.  The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the interest rate will be
a.         unchanged.      c.         relatively low.
b.         relatively high.            d.         greater than the return on capital.
               54.       Suppose that the economy suffers a major natural disaster.  The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the real rental price of capital will be
a.         unchanged.      c.         relatively low.
b.         relatively high.            d.         greater than the return on capital.
               55.       According to the equilibrium business-cycle model, a major improvement in competitiveness in a nation’s economy will affect the real wage in which way?
a.         The real wage will be unchanged.       c.         The real wage will be relatively low.
b.         The real wage cannot be predicted.    d.         The real wage will be relatively high..
               56.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology causes
a.         an economic expansion.          c.         a trend level of GDP.
b.         a recession.      d.         an economic shock.
               57.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an economic expansion typically starts with
a.         an improvement in the level of technology.    c.         a decline in the level of technology
b.         an increase in the stock of capital.      d.         a decrease in the stock of capital.
               58.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession typically starts with
a.         an improvement in the level of technology.    c.         a decline in the level of technology
b.         an increase in the stock of capital.      d.         a decrease in the stock of capital.
               59.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low real wage and relatively high real rental price of capital.      c.         a relatively high real wage and relatively low real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively low real wage and real rental price of capital.      d.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.
               60.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low interest rate and relatively high real rental price of capital.   c.         a relatively high interest rate and relatively low real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.     d.         a relatively low interest rate and real rental price of capital.
               61.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an economic expansion would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low real wage and relatively high real rental price of capital.      c.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively low real wage and real rental price of capital.      d.         a relatively high real wage and relatively low real rental price of capital.
               62.       Which of the following variables is procyclical, according to the equilibrium business-cycle model?
a.         the real wage rate        c.         the real rental rate on capital
b.         the real interest rate     d.         all of the above
               63.       Which of the following variables is countercyclical, according to the equilibrium business-cycle model?
a.         the real wage rate        c.         the real rental rate on capital
b.         the real interest rate     d.         none of the above
               64.       The equilibrium real-business cycle model predicts that labor productivity will be
a.         procyclical.      c.         acyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         indeterminate.
               65.       The measure known as total hours worked
a.         multiplies employment by 40. c.         divides employment by 24.
b.         divides employment by the average wage rate.          d.         multiplies employment by the average weekly hours worked per employee.
   SHORT ANSWER
             1.         If there is a positive technological change, what happens in the labor market?
               2.         What does the model predict about investment when technology increases and why and what do the data show about investment in the US?
              3.         What happens to consumption when there is a permanent and temporary increase in technology, A, and why?
              4.         What is the relationship between real GDP and the cyclical part of GDP?
              5.         What happens in the model, if a temporary technology change increase real wages temporarily?
              6.         What does the real business-cycle model predict will be the relationship between an economic expansion and the real rental price of capital?
  Chapter 9
 TRUE/FALSE
             1.         When the capital utilization rate,  , is added to the model the interest rate becomes countercyclical.
              2.        
The higher the capital utilization rate, , the greater the depreciation rate of capital,  .
              3.         An increase in unemployment insurance payments decreases effective real income while unemployed.
              4.         The duration of unemployment is the number unemployed divided by the labor force.
              5.         Unemployment will exist in an market clearing model, if it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.
              6.         An increase in the technology level leads to an outward shift of the demand curve for capital services.
              7.         An increase in the technology level leads to an increase in the market-clearing real rental price of capital.
              8.         When a variable capital utilization rate is added to the Barro model, the model predicts that the capital utilization rate will be countercyclical.
              9.         GDP can rise when a decrease in technology leads to an increase in the capital utilization rate.
              10.       The natural rate of unemployment in an economy occurs when the job separation rate equals zero.
    MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         The capital utilization rate is:
a.         the rate capital wears out in a particular period.         c.         the percentage of capital used in production.
b.         the depreciation rate.  d.         all of the above.
               2.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP increases.            c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) increases.
b.         machines are in use more hours per period.    d.         all of the above.
               3.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP decreases.           c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) increases.
b.         machines are in use fewer hours per period.   d.         all of the above.
               4.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP decreases.           c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) decreases.
b.         machines are in use more hours per period.    d.         all of the above.
               5.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP increases.            c.         (hour per period)•(number of machines) decreases.
b.         machines are in use fewer hours per period.   d.         all of the above.
               6.         When we allow a capital utilization rate,  , less than 100%, then the rate of return form owning capital becomes:
a.         (R/P) - .          c.         (R/P)• -  .
b.         (R/P)• -  ( ).    d.         (R/P) -  ( ).
               7.         An owner of capital might set their capital utilization rate below 100% because:
a.         the depreciation rate goes up with the capital utilization rate.           c.         to make time available for maintaining their capital.
b.         machines wear out faster when used more intensively.          d.         all of the above.
               8.         The optimal capital utilization rate,  , is that    where:
a.         (R/P)• -  ( ) is maximized.      c.         (R/P)•  >  ( )
b.         (R/P)• =  ( )    d.         (R/P)•  <  ( )
               9.         the net real income from supplying capital services is:
a.         (R/P)• K -  ( )K.          c.          ( )K - (R/P)•
b.         (R/P)• K +  ( ).            d.         (R/P)• K •  ( )K
               10.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise the user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         operating at inconvenient times.         c.         operating when complementary services like transporters are unavailable or more expensive.
b.         paying overtime to employees operating the machines.          d.         all of the above.
               11.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         operating at inconvenient times.         c.         less highway congestion.
b.         off-peak utility prices. d.         all of the above.
               12.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         less highway congestion.        c.         operating when complementary services like transportation are unavailable or more expensive.
b.         off peak utility prices. d.         all of the above.
               13.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         less highway congestion.        c.         off peak utility prices.
b.         paying overtime to employees operating the machines.          d.         all of the above.
               14.       GDP rises can rise in an expansion due to:
a.         an increase in technology, A, directly increasing GDP.         c.         an increase in technology, A, causing an increase in the capital utilization rate, the quantity of capital services and GDP.
b.         an increase in technology, A, causing an increase in labor, L and GDP.        d.         all of the above.
               15.       The model predicts the capital utilization rate, , is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               16.       The model predicts that with a negative shock to technology, the capital utilization rate,  , will:
a.         rise as GDP rises.        c.         rise as GDP falls.
b.         fall as GDP falls.         d.         fall as GDP rises.
               17.       After the capital utilization rate,   , is included in the model, the interest rate:
a.         is still procyclical.        c.         becomes procyclical.
b.         is still countercyclical.             d.         becomes countercyclical.
               18.       The US data from 1948 to 2006 shows the capital utilization rate,  , is:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical the opposite the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical the opposite as the model predicts.
               19.       The model predicts that with a positive shock to technology the capital utilization rate,  , will
a.         fall as GDP falls.         c.         rise as GDP rises.
b.         fall as GDP rises.        d.         rise as GDP falls.
               20.       If the rental price of capital increases, then the capital utilization rate,  ,:
a.         also increases.  c.         remains the same.
b.         decreases.        d.         depends on whether the substitution rate is greater than the income effect.
               21.       The unemployment rate is:
a.         the number of workers in the labor force unemployed divided by the number of workers employed.         c.            the number of workers in the labor force unemployed divided by the labor force.
b.         the number of workers employed divide by the number of workers in the labor force unemployed.            d.            the labor force divided by the number of workers in the labor force unemployed.
               22.       The vacancy rate in the labor market is:
a.         the number of job openings divided by the number of unemployed people in the labor force.         c.         the ratio of open jobs to filled jobs.
b.         the number of job openings divided by the number of workers in the labor force.   d.         the ratio of open jobs to the total number of jobs that employers want occupied.
               23.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the number of unemployed workers in the labor force is:
a.         5 million.         c.         2 million.
b.         3 million.         d.         none of the above.
               24.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the number of vacancies is:
a.         5 million.         c.         2 million.
b.         3 million.         d.         none of the above.
               25.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the unemployment rate is:
a.         3%.      c.         5.3%.
b.         5%.      d.         none of the above.
               26.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, vacancy rate is:
a.         5%.      c.         3.1%.
b.         3.2%.   d.         3%.
               27.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 94 million people employed, there are 99 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the vacancy rate is:
a.         5%.      c.         5.3%
b.         5.1%    d.         1%
               28.       One minus the unemployment rate, 1 - u, is:
a.         the vacancy rate.         c.         the employment rate.
b.         the labor force.            d.         the level of employment.
               29.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         there are frictions in the labor market.            c.         we allow for differences among workers and jobs.
b.         it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.    d.         all of the above.
               30.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         the labor market is in disequilibrium.  c.         we allow for differences among workers and jobs.
b.         we allow capital utilization of less than 100%.           d.         all of the above.
               31.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         there are frictions in the labor market.            c.         the labor market is in equilibrium.
b.         the labor supply curve is upward sloping.       d.         all of the above.
               32.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         all workers are identical.         c.         the labor supply curve is upward sloping.
b.         it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.    d.         all of the above.
               33.       A worker will accept a job offer,  if the real wage offer is above:
a.         the worker’s effective real income when unemployed,  .       c.         the worker’s reservation wage.
b.         the wage the worker earned in their last job.  d.         the average wage in the economy.
               34.       An increase in a worker’s effective real income while unemployed, , will cause the worker’s:
a.         real wage offers to increase.   c.         real reservation wage to increase.
b.         real wage offers to decrease.  d.         real reservation wage to decrease.
               35.       We expect that an increase in the effective real income while unemployed  ,
a.         will reduce the job-finding rate.         c.         increase real wage offers.
b.         will increase the job-finding rate.       d.         decrease real wage offers.
               36.       A decrease in workers’ effective real incomes while unemployed,  , will:
a.         lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment.          c.         raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment.
b.         lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.      d.         raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.
               37.       A negative shock to productivity, A, will:
a.         lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment.          c.         raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment.
b.         lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.      d.         raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.
               38.       Job separations can be due to:
a.         an adverse shock to the firm’s production function.  c.         a change in a worker’s circumstances such as changing locations.
b.         the job being temporary from the start like a seasonal job.     d.         all of the above.
               39.       Job separations can be due to:
a.         a positive shock to the firm’s production function.    c.         a change in a worker’s circumstances such as changing locations.
b.         an increase in technology.       d.         all of the above.
               40.       Job separations can be caused by:
a.         an adverse shock to the firm’s production function.  c.         increased technology, A.
b.         foreign competition.    d.         all of the above.
               41.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is the unemployment rate:
a.         where job findings equal job separations.       c.         the job separation rate equals the job finding rate.
b.         job findings are maximized.    d.         job separations are minimized.
               42.       If the job separation rate is 0.02 and the job finding rate is 0.3, then the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         6.25%  c.         6.67%
b.         15%     d.         none of the above.
               43.       If the job separation rate is 0.03 and the job finding rate is 0.7, then the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         4.2%    c.         23.3%
b.         4.1%    d.         none of the above.
               44.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         positively related to that job separations rate.            c.         fixed.
b.         zero.    d.         positively related to the job finding rate.
               45.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         negatively related to that job separations rate.           c.         fixed.
b.         zero.    d.         negatively related to the job finding rate.
               46.       In US data vacancies from 1954 to 2006 as measure by the help-wanted index are:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical the opposite the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical the opposite the model predicts.
               47.       Discouraged workers are:
a.         those that are unemployed.     c.         those who have dropped out of the labor force.
b.         those that are underemployed.            d.         those who are under paid.
               48.       The job-finding rate is:
a.         the number of hires per month divided by the number unemployed.             c.         the number of hires per month divided by the unemployment rate.
b.         the number of hires per month divided by the number employed.     d.         the number of hires per month divided by the employment rate.
               49.       The US data from December 2000 to February 2006 shows that the job finding rate is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               50.       The US data from December 2000 to February 2006 shows that the job separation rate is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               51.       Owners of capital choose the utilization rate to
a.         maximize their net real income from supplying capital services.        c.         minimize their net real income from supplying capital services.
b.         maximize their net real costs from supplying capital services.            d.         minimize their net real rental payments from supplying capital services.
               52.       When the Barro model allows for variable capital utilization rates, the result is that an increase in the technology level causes
a.         a decrease in the capital utilization rate.         c.         a decrease in the quantity of capital services.
b.         an increase in the capital utilization rate.        d.         no change in the quantity of capital services.
               53.       When the technology level increases,
a.         the demand for capital services shifts to the left.       c.         the demand for capital services shifts to the right.
b.         the supply of capital services shifts to the right.         d.         both (b) and (c).
               54.       When the technology level increases, the market for capital services
a.         fails to clear.    c.         clears at the original real rental price.
b.         clears at a lower real rental price.        d.         clears at a higher real rental price.
               55.       When the technology level increases, the market for capital services
a.         clears at a higher quantity of capital services. c.         clears at the original quantity of capital services.
b.         clears at a lower quantity of capital services.  d.         fails to clear.
               56.       On a graph of the capital services market, the supply of capital services
a.         slopes down because an increase in the real rental price raises the capital utilization rate.    c.         slopes up because an increase in the real rental price lowers the capital utilization rate.
b.         slopes up because an increase in the real rental price raises the capital utilization rate.          d.         slopes down because an increase in the real rental price lowers the capital utilization rate.
               57.       On a graph of the capital services market, the demand for capital services shifts out when
a.         the technology level decreases, which increases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.   c.         the technology level increases, which increases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.
b.         the technology level decreases, which decreases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.   d.         the technology level increases, which decreases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.
               58.       U.S. data show that the labor force is
a.         strongly countercyclical.         c.         strongly procyclical.
b.         acyclical.         d.         weakly procyclical.
               59.       U.S. data show that the employment rate is
a.         strongly procyclical.    c.         strongly countercyclical.
b.         acyclical.         d.         weakly countercyclical.
               60.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         increase a person’s effective real income while unemployed.            c.         have no effect on a person’s effective real income while unemployed.
b.         decrease a person’s effective real income while unemployed.           d.         either (a) or (c).
               61.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         decrease a person’s duration of unemployment.         c.         have no effect on a person’s duration of unemployment.
b.         increase a person’s duration of unemployment.          d.         either (a) or (c).
               62.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         increase the job finding rate.   c.         decrease the job-finding rate.
b.         have no effect on the job-finding rate.           d.         either (a) or (b).
               63.       The job-separation rate is likely to be high among workers who are
a.         inexperienced and difficult to evaluate.         c.         in industries where there are frequent shocks to product demand.
b.         likely to experience changes in job preferences.         d.         all of the above.
               64.       At the natural rate of unemployment,
a.         the job-separation rate is positive.       c.         the job-finding rate equals zero.
b.         the job-separation rate equals zero.     d.         both (b) and (c).
               65.       At the natural rate of unemployment,
a.         the job-separation and job-finding rates are each zero.          c.         tthe job-separation and job-finding rates are both negative.
b.         the job-separation and job-finding rates are both positive.     d.         the job-separation rate is zero and the job-finding rate is positive.
   SHORT ANSWER
             1.         How does the capital utilization enter the production function?
              2.         How does the capital utilization rate affect the depreciation rate and why?
              3.         How can there be unemployment in a market clearing model?
              4.         How does the Barro model define the natural rate of unemployment and what does the natural rate of unemployment depend on.
              5.         What is the reservation wage?
              6.         How does an increase in technology affect the market-clearing real rental price of capital services?
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ECO 302 Week 6 Quiz - Strayer
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 Chapter 8 and 9
 TRUE/FALSE
             1.         Intertemporal substitution effects are substitution effects over time.
              2.         When the marginal product of labor increases due to a positive technology change, the real wage falls.
              3.         The model predicts that in response to a permanent positive change in technology real consumption will be procyclical.
              4.         An increase in the interest rate makes future consumption cheaper and future leisure more expensive.
              5.         The income effect on labor supply is positive.
              6.         A trend line for U.S. GDP since World War II is mostly flat.
              7.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will increase the real wage rate.
              8.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will decrease the interest rate.
              9.         In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will decrease the interest rate.
              10.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that the real wage will be procyclical.
              11.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that the real rental price of capital will be procyclical.
              12.       The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that real investment will be countercyclical.
  MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         The cyclical part of real GDP is
a.         trend real GDP less real GDP.            c.         real GDP/trend real GDP.
b.         real GDP less trend real GDP.            d.         trend real GDP/real GDP.
               2.         Real GDP equals:
a.         trend real GDP plus the cyclical part of GDP            c.         trend real GDP less the cyclical part of GDP.
b.         trend real GDP times the cyclical part of GDP.         d.         trend real GDP divided by the cyclical part of GDP.
               3.         An equilibrium business-cycle model:
a.         uses shocks to GDP to find equilibrium conditions.  c.         uses equilibrium conditions to determine how shocks affect real GDP and other macroeconomic variables. .
b.         uses GDP to find equilibrium shocks to the economy.           d.         uses GDP to find equilibrium conditions.
               4.         An increase in the level of technology, A, causes:
a.         an increase in the MPL           c.         a movement along the MPL hiring more labor.
b.         a decrease in the MPL            d.         a movement along the MPL hiring less labor.
               5.         The model predicts that an economic expansion caused by an increase in technology, A, will:
a.         drive down the real wage.      c.         drive up the real wage.
b.         cause labor supply to be greater than labor demand.  d.         lead to a relatively low real wage.
               6.         The model predicts that in a recession caused by an decrease in technology, A, we would observe:
a.         a relatively low real wage.      c.         a relatively high real wage.
b.         an excess demand for labor.   d.         an increase in the MPL
               7.         If technology, A, increases, then:
a.         the MPK and the demand for capital services increase.         c.         the MPK increases and the demand for capital services decreases.
b.         the MPK and the demand for capital services decrease.        d.         the MPK decreases and the demand for capital services increases.
               8.         The model predicts that if there is a technology, A, shock, the real rental price of capital will:
a.         be relatively high during an economic expansion or a recession.        c.         be relatively high during an economic expansion and relatively low during a recession.
b.         be relatively low during an economic expansion or a recession.         d.         be relatively low during an economic expansion and relatively high during a recession.
               9.         The model predicts that if there is a technology, A, shock, the interest rate, i, will be:
a.         relatively high during an economic expansion or a recession.            c.         relatively high during an economic expansion and relatively low during a recession.
b.         relatively low during an economic expansion or a recession. d.         relatively low during an economic expansion and relatively high during a recession.
               10.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to rise due to the income effect. c.         tend to fall due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         may rise or fall depending on whether the income effect is greater than the substitution effect or not.       d.            all of the above.
               11.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to fall due to the income effect. c.         tend to rise due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         may rise or fall depending on whether the income effect is greater than the substitution effect or not.       d.            all of the above.
               12.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to rise due to the income effect. c.         tend to rise due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         be unchanged. d.         tend to fluctuate.
               13.       During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a.         tend to fall due to the income effect. c.         tend to fall due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b.         be unchanged. d.         tend to fluctuate.
               14.       If technology, A, increases permanently then we would expect:
a.         consumption to decrease as the substitution effect would be greater than the income effect of the change.            c.         consumption to increase as the substitution effect would be greater than the income effect of the change.
b.         consumption to increase as the income effect would be greater than the substitution effect of the change.            d.         consumption to decrease as the income effect would be greater than the substitution effect of the change.
               15.       If there is a permanent increase in technology, A, then we expect consumption to:
a.         increase by more than real GDP.        c.         increase but by less than real GDP.
b.         increase by the same amount as real GDP.     d.         be unchanged.
               16.       If there were a permanent increase in technology, A, we would expect real saving to:
a.         increase as the increase in real consumption is less than real GDP.    c.         decrease as the increase in real consumption is more than real GDP.
b.         increase as the increase in real consumption is more than real GDP.  d.         decrease as the increase in real consumption is less than real GDP.
               17.       A variable that moves in the same direction as real GDP is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               18.       A variable that has little tendency to move during a business cycle is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               19.       A variable that moves in the opposite direction as real GDP is known as:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               20.       An acyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               21.       An procyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               22.       An countercyclical variable is one that:
a.         moves the same direction as real GDP.          c.         moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b.         has little tendency to move during a business cycle.  d.         determined outside the model.
               23.       US real consumer expenditure since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               24.       US real gross domestic private investment since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               25.       Since 1954, in the US:
a.         real gross private investment has varied more than real GDP, while real consumer expenditure has varied less than real GDP.            c.         real gross private investment has varied less than real GDP, while real consumer expenditure has varied more than real GDP.
b.         real gross private investment and real consumer expenditure have varied more than real GDP.       d.         real gross private investment and real consumer expenditure have varied less than real GDP.
               26.       US real average earnings of production workers since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical.      c.         a cyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               27.       US real rental price of capital since 1954 has been:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical rather countercyclical as the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical rather procyclical as the model predicts.
               28.       An example of a temporary change in technology would be:
a.         a new discovery.         c.         a harvest failure.
b.         a new invention.          d.         all of the above.
               29.       An example of a temporary change in technology would be:
a.         a new discovery.         c.         a new invention.
b.         a general strike.           d.         all of the above.
               30.       With a temporary change in technology the model predicts:
a.         the interest rate will be procyclical.    c.         a higher interest rate will motivate households to increase current real saving.
b.         a lower interest rate will motivate households to  increase current real consumption.           d.         all of the above.
               31.       With a temporary change in technology the model predicts:
a.         the interest rate will be procyclical.    c.         a higher interest rate will motivate households to decrease current real saving.
b.         a lower interest rate will motivate households to decrease current real consumption.           d.         all of the above.
               32.       With a temporary change in technology, we would expect:
a.         the income effect of consumption to be larger.          c.         the intertemporal substitution effect on consumption to be larger.
b.         the income effect of consumption to be smaller.        d.         the intertemporal substitution effect on consumption to be larger.
               33.       With a temporary positive change in technology we would expect real current consumption:
a.         to increase a lot.          c.         to remain unchanged.
b.         to decrease a lot.         d.         to either increase or decrease a little.
               34.       With a temporary change in technology, A, we expect little change in consumption because:
a.         the income effect on consumption is larger.   c.         the intertemporal-substitution effect is larger.
b.         the income effect on consumption is smaller.             d.         the intertemporal-substitution effect is smaller.
               35.       The model predicts that an economic expansion caused by a  temporary increase in technology, A, would lead to:
a.         high real GDP and investment.           c.         low real GDP and investment.
b.         low real GDP and high real investment.         d.         high real GDP and low real investment.
               36.       Temporary changes in technology, A, conflict with the data in that:
a.         investment is clearly acyclical.            c.         the wage rate is clearly countercyclical.
b.         consumption is clearly procyclical.     d.         all of the above.
               37.       A higher real wage:
a.         makes consumption more expensive.  c.         makes leisure less expensive.
b.         makes it a worse deal for households to work an extra hour. d.         makes leisure more expensive.
               38.       A higher real wage:
a.         increases the income of households inducing them to work more.    c.         increases the income of households inducing them to work less.
b.         decreases the income of households inducing them to work more.   d.         decreases the income of households inducing them to work less.
               39.       The overall effect of a higher real wage is:
a.         to increase labor as the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.            c.         to decrease labor as the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.
b.         ambiguous on labor as the income and substitution effect work against each other.             d.         ambiguous because the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.
               40.       We expect that an increase in real wages will:
a.         increase labor supply, if temporary.    c.         increase labor supply, whether permanent or temporary.
b.         increase labor supply, if permanent.    d.         reduce labor supply, whether permanent or temporary.
               41.       An increase in the interest rate induces worker to:
a.         work more in the current period and less in the future.          c.         work less in the current period and more in the future.
b.         work more in the current period and in the future.     d.         work less in the current period and in the future.
               42.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         future consumption cheaper.   c.         current consumption more expensive.
b.         future leisure cheaper. d.         all of the above.
               43.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         future consumption and leisure more expensive.        c.         future consumption and leisure cheaper.
b.         future consumption cheaper and future leisure more expensive.        d.         future consumption more expensive and future leisure cheaper.
               44.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         current consumption and leisure more expensive.      c.         current consumption and leisure cheaper.
b.         current consumption cheaper and current. leisure more expensive.    d.         current consumption more expensive and current leisure cheaper.
               45.       A higher interest rate makes:
a.         current consumption and future leisure more expensive.        c.         current consumption and future leisure cheaper.
b.         current consumption cheaper and future. leisure more expensive.     d.         current consumption more expensive and future leisure cheaper.
               46.       Intertemporal substitution effects motivate households to:
a.         supply more labor when the wage rate is temporarily low.     c.         supply less labor when the wage rate is temporarily low.
b.         supply more labor when the wage rate is permanently low.   d.         supply more labor when the wage rate is permanently low.
               47.       In the US since 1964 total hours worked and employment have been:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               48.       The measure of labor productivity used in the popular media is:
a.         Y/L      c.         procyclical.
b.         average product of labor.        d.         all of the above.
               49.       In the model with an upward sloping supply curve of labor and increase demand for labor due to a positive technological, A, change:
a.         increases employment and the real wage.      c.         decreases employment and the real wage.
b.         decreases employment and increases the real wage.   d.         decreases employment and increases the real wage.
               50.       When the labor supply of households is allowed to slope upward:
a.         the model predictions match the observed data that employment and real wages are countercyclical.         c.            the model predictions do not match the observed data that employment and real wages are procyclical.
b.         the model predictions do not match the observed data that employment and real wages are countercyclical.            d.         the model predictions match the observed data that employment and real wages are procyclical.
               51.       The most important feature of U.S. real GDP in the post-World War II era most likely is
a.         the overall upward trend.        c.         the large fluctuations relative to trend.
b.         the high standard deviation from trend.         d.         the many recessions related to politics.
               52.       The equilibrium business cycle model, unlike the long-run Solow growth model, assumes that
a.         changes in capital are important.         c.         the interest rate always rises.
b.         changes in capital are insignificant.    d.         the cyclical growth in GDP is positive.
               53.       Suppose that the economy suffers a major natural disaster.  The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the interest rate will be
a.         unchanged.      c.         relatively low.
b.         relatively high.            d.         greater than the return on capital.
               54.       Suppose that the economy suffers a major natural disaster.  The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the real rental price of capital will be
a.         unchanged.      c.         relatively low.
b.         relatively high.            d.         greater than the return on capital.
               55.       According to the equilibrium business-cycle model, a major improvement in competitiveness in a nation’s economy will affect the real wage in which way?
a.         The real wage will be unchanged.       c.         The real wage will be relatively low.
b.         The real wage cannot be predicted.    d.         The real wage will be relatively high..
               56.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology causes
a.         an economic expansion.          c.         a trend level of GDP.
b.         a recession.      d.         an economic shock.
               57.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an economic expansion typically starts with
a.         an improvement in the level of technology.    c.         a decline in the level of technology
b.         an increase in the stock of capital.      d.         a decrease in the stock of capital.
               58.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession typically starts with
a.         an improvement in the level of technology.    c.         a decline in the level of technology
b.         an increase in the stock of capital.      d.         a decrease in the stock of capital.
               59.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low real wage and relatively high real rental price of capital.      c.         a relatively high real wage and relatively low real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively low real wage and real rental price of capital.      d.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.
               60.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low interest rate and relatively high real rental price of capital.   c.         a relatively high interest rate and relatively low real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.     d.         a relatively low interest rate and real rental price of capital.
               61.       In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an economic expansion would be characterized by
a.         a relatively low real wage and relatively high real rental price of capital.      c.         a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.
b.         a relatively low real wage and real rental price of capital.      d.         a relatively high real wage and relatively low real rental price of capital.
               62.       Which of the following variables is procyclical, according to the equilibrium business-cycle model?
a.         the real wage rate        c.         the real rental rate on capital
b.         the real interest rate     d.         all of the above
               63.       Which of the following variables is countercyclical, according to the equilibrium business-cycle model?
a.         the real wage rate        c.         the real rental rate on capital
b.         the real interest rate     d.         none of the above
               64.       The equilibrium real-business cycle model predicts that labor productivity will be
a.         procyclical.      c.         acyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         indeterminate.
    ��          65.       The measure known as total hours worked
a.         multiplies employment by 40. c.         divides employment by 24.
b.         divides employment by the average wage rate.          d.         multiplies employment by the average weekly hours worked per employee.
   SHORT ANSWER
             1.         If there is a positive technological change, what happens in the labor market?
               2.         What does the model predict about investment when technology increases and why and what do the data show about investment in the US?
              3.         What happens to consumption when there is a permanent and temporary increase in technology, A, and why?
              4.         What is the relationship between real GDP and the cyclical part of GDP?
              5.         What happens in the model, if a temporary technology change increase real wages temporarily?
              6.         What does the real business-cycle model predict will be the relationship between an economic expansion and the real rental price of capital?
  Chapter 9
 TRUE/FALSE
             1.         When the capital utilization rate,  , is added to the model the interest rate becomes countercyclical.
              2.        
The higher the capital utilization rate, , the greater the depreciation rate of capital,  .
              3.         An increase in unemployment insurance payments decreases effective real income while unemployed.
              4.         The duration of unemployment is the number unemployed divided by the labor force.
              5.         Unemployment will exist in an market clearing model, if it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.
              6.         An increase in the technology level leads to an outward shift of the demand curve for capital services.
              7.         An increase in the technology level leads to an increase in the market-clearing real rental price of capital.
              8.         When a variable capital utilization rate is added to the Barro model, the model predicts that the capital utilization rate will be countercyclical.
              9.         GDP can rise when a decrease in technology leads to an increase in the capital utilization rate.
              10.       The natural rate of unemployment in an economy occurs when the job separation rate equals zero.
    MULTIPLE CHOICE
             1.         The capital utilization rate is:
a.         the rate capital wears out in a particular period.         c.         the percentage of capital used in production.
b.         the depreciation rate.  d.         all of the above.
               2.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP increases.            c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) increases.
b.         machines are in use more hours per period.    d.         all of the above.
               3.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP decreases.           c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) increases.
b.         machines are in use fewer hours per period.   d.         all of the above.
               4.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP decreases.           c.         (hours per period)•(number of machines) decreases.
b.         machines are in use more hours per period.    d.         all of the above.
               5.         When the capital utilization rate,  , increases then:
a.         GDP increases.            c.         (hour per period)•(number of machines) decreases.
b.         machines are in use fewer hours per period.   d.         all of the above.
               6.         When we allow a capital utilization rate,  , less than 100%, then the rate of return form owning capital becomes:
a.         (R/P) - .          c.         (R/P)• -  .
b.         (R/P)• -  ( ).    d.         (R/P) -  ( ).
               7.         An owner of capital might set their capital utilization rate below 100% because:
a.         the depreciation rate goes up with the capital utilization rate.           c.         to make time available for maintaining their capital.
b.         machines wear out faster when used more intensively.          d.         all of the above.
               8.         The optimal capital utilization rate,  , is that    where:
a.         (R/P)• -  ( ) is maximized.      c.         (R/P)•  >  ( )
b.         (R/P)• =  ( )    d.         (R/P)•  <  ( )
               9.         the net real income from supplying capital services is:
a.         (R/P)• K -  ( )K.          c.          ( )K - (R/P)•
b.         (R/P)• K +  ( ).            d.         (R/P)• K •  ( )K
               10.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise the user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         operating at inconvenient times.         c.         operating when complementary services like transporters are unavailable or more expensive.
b.         paying overtime to employees operating the machines.          d.         all of the above.
               11.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         operating at inconvenient times.         c.         less highway congestion.
b.         off-peak utility prices. d.         all of the above.
               12.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         less highway congestion.        c.         operating when complementary services like transportation are unavailable or more expensive.
b.         off peak utility prices. d.         all of the above.
               13.       Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply:
a.         less highway congestion.        c.         off peak utility prices.
b.         paying overtime to employees operating the machines.          d.         all of the above.
               14.       GDP rises can rise in an expansion due to:
a.         an increase in technology, A, directly increasing GDP.         c.         an increase in technology, A, causing an increase in the capital utilization rate, the quantity of capital services and GDP.
b.         an increase in technology, A, causing an increase in labor, L and GDP.        d.         all of the above.
               15.       The model predicts the capital utilization rate, , is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         countercyclical.
b.         procyclical.      d.         exogenous.
               16.       The model predicts that with a negative shock to technology, the capital utilization rate,  , will:
a.         rise as GDP rises.        c.         rise as GDP falls.
b.         fall as GDP falls.         d.         fall as GDP rises.
               17.       After the capital utilization rate,   , is included in the model, the interest rate:
a.         is still procyclical.        c.         becomes procyclical.
b.         is still countercyclical.             d.         becomes countercyclical.
               18.       The US data from 1948 to 2006 shows the capital utilization rate,  , is:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical the opposite the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical the opposite as the model predicts.
               19.       The model predicts that with a positive shock to technology the capital utilization rate,  , will
a.         fall as GDP falls.         c.         rise as GDP rises.
b.         fall as GDP rises.        d.         rise as GDP falls.
               20.       If the rental price of capital increases, then the capital utilization rate,  ,:
a.         also increases.  c.         remains the same.
b.         decreases.        d.         depends on whether the substitution rate is greater than the income effect.
               21.       The unemployment rate is:
a.         the number of workers in the labor force unemployed divided by the number of workers employed.         c.            the number of workers in the labor force unemployed divided by the labor force.
b.         the number of workers employed divide by the number of workers in the labor force unemployed.            d.            the labor force divided by the number of workers in the labor force unemployed.
               22.       The vacancy rate in the labor market is:
a.         the number of job openings divided by the number of unemployed people in the labor force.         c.         the ratio of open jobs to filled jobs.
b.         the number of job openings divided by the number of workers in the labor force.   d.         the ratio of open jobs to the total number of jobs that employers want occupied.
               23.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the number of unemployed workers in the labor force is:
a.         5 million.         c.         2 million.
b.         3 million.         d.         none of the above.
               24.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the number of vacancies is:
a.         5 million.         c.         2 million.
b.         3 million.         d.         none of the above.
               25.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the unemployment rate is:
a.         3%.      c.         5.3%.
b.         5%.      d.         none of the above.
               26.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, vacancy rate is:
a.         5%.      c.         3.1%.
b.         3.2%.   d.         3%.
               27.       If the labor force is 100 million, there are 94 million people employed, there are 99 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the vacancy rate is:
a.         5%.      c.         5.3%
b.         5.1%    d.         1%
               28.       One minus the unemployment rate, 1 - u, is:
a.         the vacancy rate.         c.         the employment rate.
b.         the labor force.            d.         the level of employment.
               29.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         there are frictions in the labor market.            c.         we allow for differences among workers and jobs.
b.         it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.    d.         all of the above.
               30.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         the labor market is in disequilibrium.  c.         we allow for differences among workers and jobs.
b.         we allow capital utilization of less than 100%.           d.         all of the above.
               31.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         there are frictions in the labor market.            c.         the labor market is in equilibrium.
b.         the labor supply curve is upward sloping.       d.         all of the above.
               32.       Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if:
a.         all workers are identical.         c.         the labor supply curve is upward sloping.
b.         it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.    d.         all of the above.
               33.       A worker will accept a job offer,  if the real wage offer is above:
a.         the worker’s effective real income when unemployed,  .       c.         the worker’s reservation wage.
b.         the wage the worker earned in their last job.  d.         the average wage in the economy.
               34.       An increase in a worker’s effective real income while unemployed, , will cause the worker’s:
a.         real wage offers to increase.   c.         real reservation wage to increase.
b.         real wage offers to decrease.  d.         real reservation wage to decrease.
               35.       We expect that an increase in the effective real income while unemployed  ,
a.         will reduce the job-finding rate.         c.         increase real wage offers.
b.         will increase the job-finding rate.       d.         decrease real wage offers.
               36.       A decrease in workers’ effective real incomes while unemployed,  , will:
a.         lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment.          c.         raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment.
b.         lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.      d.         raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.
               37.       A negative shock to productivity, A, will:
a.         lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment.          c.         raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment.
b.         lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.      d.         raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.
               38.       Job separations can be due to:
a.         an adverse shock to the firm’s production function.  c.         a change in a worker’s circumstances such as changing locations.
b.         the job being temporary from the start like a seasonal job.     d.         all of the above.
               39.       Job separations can be due to:
a.         a positive shock to the firm’s production function.    c.         a change in a worker’s circumstances such as changing locations.
b.         an increase in technology.       d.         all of the above.
               40.       Job separations can be caused by:
a.         an adverse shock to the firm’s production function.  c.         increased technology, A.
b.         foreign competition.    d.         all of the above.
               41.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is the unemployment rate:
a.         where job findings equal job separations.       c.         the job separation rate equals the job finding rate.
b.         job findings are maximized.    d.         job separations are minimized.
               42.       If the job separation rate is 0.02 and the job finding rate is 0.3, then the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         6.25%  c.         6.67%
b.         15%     d.         none of the above.
               43.       If the job separation rate is 0.03 and the job finding rate is 0.7, then the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         4.2%    c.         23.3%
b.         4.1%    d.         none of the above.
               44.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         positively related to that job separations rate.            c.         fixed.
b.         zero.    d.         positively related to the job finding rate.
               45.       In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is:
a.         negatively related to that job separations rate.           c.         fixed.
b.         zero.    d.         negatively related to the job finding rate.
               46.       In US data vacancies from 1954 to 2006 as measure by the help-wanted index are:
a.         procyclical as the model predicts.       c.         procyclical the opposite the model predicts.
b.         countercyclical as the model predicts.            d.         countercyclical the opposite the model predicts.
               47.       Discouraged workers are:
a.         those that are unemployed.     c.         those who have dropped out of the labor force.
b.         those that are underemployed.            d.         those who are under paid.
               48.       The job-finding rate is:
a.         the number of hires per month divided by the number unemployed.             c.         the number of hires per month divided by the unemployment rate.
b.         the number of hires per month divided by the number employed.     d.         the number of hires per month divided by the employment rate.
               49.       The US data from December 2000 to February 2006 shows that the job finding rate is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               50.       The US data from December 2000 to February 2006 shows that the job separation rate is:
a.         acyclical.         c.         procyclical.
b.         countercyclical.           d.         exogenous.
               51.       Owners of capital choose the utilization rate to
a.         maximize their net real income from supplying capital services.        c.         minimize their net real income from supplying capital services.
b.         maximize their net real costs from supplying capital services.            d.         minimize their net real rental payments from supplying capital services.
               52.       When the Barro model allows for variable capital utilization rates, the result is that an increase in the technology level causes
a.         a decrease in the capital utilization rate.         c.         a decrease in the quantity of capital services.
b.         an increase in the capital utilization rate.        d.         no change in the quantity of capital services.
               53.       When the technology level increases,
a.         the demand for capital services shifts to the left.       c.         the demand for capital services shifts to the right.
b.         the supply of capital services shifts to the right.         d.         both (b) and (c).
               54.       When the technology level increases, the market for capital services
a.         fails to clear.    c.         clears at the original real rental price.
b.         clears at a lower real rental price.        d.         clears at a higher real rental price.
               55.       When the technology level increases, the market for capital services
a.         clears at a higher quantity of capital services. c.         clears at the original quantity of capital services.
b.         clears at a lower quantity of capital services.  d.         fails to clear.
               56.       On a graph of the capital services market, the supply of capital services
a.         slopes down because an increase in the real rental price raises the capital utilization rate.    c.         slopes up because an increase in the real rental price lowers the capital utilization rate.
b.         slopes up because an increase in the real rental price raises the capital utilization rate.          d.         slopes down because an increase in the real rental price lowers the capital utilization rate.
               57.       On a graph of the capital services market, the demand for capital services shifts out when
a.         the technology level decreases, which increases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.   c.         the technology level increases, which increases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.
b.         the technology level decreases, which decreases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.   d.         the technology level increases, which decreases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input.
               58.       U.S. data show that the labor force is
a.         strongly countercyclical.         c.         strongly procyclical.
b.         acyclical.         d.         weakly procyclical.
               59.       U.S. data show that the employment rate is
a.         strongly procyclical.    c.         strongly countercyclical.
b.         acyclical.         d.         weakly countercyclical.
               60.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         increase a person’s effective real income while unemployed.            c.         have no effect on a person’s effective real income while unemployed.
b.         decrease a person’s effective real income while unemployed.           d.         either (a) or (c).
               61.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         decrease a person’s duration of unemployment.         c.         have no effect on a person’s duration of unemployment.
b.         increase a person’s duration of unemployment.          d.         either (a) or (c).
               62.       An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will
a.         increase the job finding rate.   c.         decrease the job-finding rate.
b.         have no effect on the job-finding rate.           d.         either (a) or (b).
               63.       The job-separation rate is likely to be high among workers who are
a.         inexperienced and difficult to evaluate.         c.         in industries where there are frequent shocks to product demand.
b.         likely to experience changes in job preferences.         d.         all of the above.
               64.       At the natural rate of unemployment,
a.         the job-separation rate is positive.       c.         the job-finding rate equals zero.
b.         the job-separation rate equals zero.     d.         both (b) and (c).
               65.       At the natural rate of unemployment,
a.         the job-separation and job-finding rates are each zero.          c.         tthe job-separation and job-finding rates are both negative.
b.         the job-separation and job-finding rates are both positive.     d.         the job-separation rate is zero and the job-finding rate is positive.
   SHORT ANSWER
             1.         How does the capital utilization enter the production function?
              2.         How does the capital utilization rate affect the depreciation rate and why?
              3.         How can there be unemployment in a market clearing model?
              4.         How does the Barro model define the natural rate of unemployment and what does the natural rate of unemployment depend on.
              5.         What is the reservation wage?
              6.         How does an increase in technology affect the market-clearing real rental price of capital services?
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ECO 405 Week 4 Quiz – Strayer
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 Quiz 3 Chapter 4 and 5
 Chapter 04
 Pollution Problems: Must We Foul Our Own Nests?
  Multiple Choice Questions  
1. Pollution  A. Like Air And Water Pollution Became An Issue In The U.S. During The 1960's B. Tends To Be Worse In More Populated Than In Less Populated Areas C. Occurs Because Large Portions Of The Environment Are Owned By Polluters D. Increases The Cost Of Producing All Goods E. Issues Are Represented In All Of The Above Answers
 2. The Level Of Pollution Increases When  A. A Person Breathes B. Wastes Are Dumped Into The Environment C. Wastes Are Dumped Into The Environment At A Higher Rate Than Wastes Are Recycled D. New Industrial Plant Opens E. Recycling Increases
 3. Which Of The Following Is A Service Provided By The Environment?  A. Use As A Habitat B. Provision Of Amenities C. Provision Of Raw Materials D. Waste Disposal E. All Of The Above
 4. Which Of The Following Best Describes Why Pollution Exists In The Environment?  A. The Environment Has No Capacity To Recycle Waste B. All Materials Take A Very Long Time To Recycle In The Environment C. No Waste Can Be Completely Recycled D. Recycling Processes Fail To Prevent Wastes From Accumulating In The Environment E. The Environment's Capacity To Recycle Exceeds The Rate Of Waste Disposal
 5. Human Production Processes Do Not Include Which Of The Following Services?  A. Mineral Deposits, Such As Coal And Iron B. Renewable Resources, Like Timber And Plant Products C. Technological Advances In Production D. Recycling Of Waste Materials, Such As Chemical Wastes E. All Of The Above
 6. Marginal Private Cost (Mpc) Always Includes:  A. The Price Of A Good In The Market B. The Extra Costs Of Production Of One More Unit Of A Good C. The Additional Benefits Received By Consumers From The Consumption Of The Good D. The Costs Imposed On Society From Pollution E. The Expenditures By Government To Control Negative Externalities
 7. The Term "Marginal Social Benefit" Means  A. Benefits That Are Just Above The Margin Of Being Zero B. The Entire Benefits Obtainable From The Activity C. That Part Of The Benefits Covered By The Costs Of Carrying On The Activity D. The Change In Total Social Benefits Per Unit Change In The Amount Of The Activity E. The Benefits Of Minimal Quality Goods And Services
 8. If All Benefits From Consuming A Good Go To Consumers, The Demand Curve Is The Same As The  A. Mpc Curve B. Msc Curve C. Mpb Curve D. Supply Curve E. Benefit Curve
 9. When There Are No Externalities, Equilibrium In A Market  A. Maximizes Social Well-Being B. Equates Quantity Supplied And Quantity Demanded C. Equates Msb And Msc D. Equates Mpb And Mpc E. Does All Of The Above
  10. When The Cost Of An Action Falls On Other Than The Person (Or Persons) Responsible For The Action, Which Of The Following Exists?  A. Positive Externality B. Negative Externality C. Externality In Consumption D. Externality In Production E. External Cost
 11. When A Benefit Of An Action Falls On Other Than The Person (Or Persons) Responsible For The Action, Which Of The Following Exists?  A. Positive Externality B. Negative Externality C. Externality In Consumption D. Externality In Production E. External Cost
 12. When The Marginal Private Benefit Of An Activity Does Not Equal The Marginal Social Benefit, Which Of The Following Exists?  A. Positive Externality B. Negative Externality C. Externality In Consumption D. Externality In Production E. External Cost
 13. When The Marginal Private Cost Of An Activity Does Not Equal The Marginal Social Cost, Which Of The Following Exists?  A. Positive Externality B. Negative Externality C. Externality In Consumption D. Externality In Production E. External Cost
  14. Which Of The Following Creates A Positive Externality In Consumption?  A. Polluting A River B. Playing Loud Music C. Vaccinations D. Reducing The Cost Of Producing Of Another Good E. Strip Mining
 15. Which Of The Following Creates A Positive Externality In Production?  A. Polluting A River B. Playing Loud Music C. Vaccinations D. Reducing The Cost Of Producing Of Another Good E. Strip Mining
 16. Which Of The Following Creates A Negative Externality In Consumption?  A. Polluting A River B. Playing Loud Music C. Vaccinations D. Reducing The Cost Of Producing Of Another Good E. Strip Mining
 17. People Have An Incentive To Pollute When  A. There Is Collective Consumption Of An Environmental Service B. No One Has Property Rights To The Environment C. It Is Less Expensive To Pollute Than To Clean Up D. The Mpc Of Polluting < Mpc Of Cleanup E. All Of The Above
 18. As Additional Units Of Pollution Control Are Added, At Some Point Each Additional Unit Adds  A. Less Than The Previous Unit To Total Benefits B. More Than The Previous Unit To Total Benefits C. Less Than The Previous Unit To Total Costs D. More To Total Benefits Than To Total Costs E. Less To Total Costs Than Total Benefits
  19. When Mpc Is Less Than Msc,  A. Firms Will Tend To Produce More Than Is Socially Optimal B. The Price Of The Product Will Be Higher Than The Competitive Price C. The Firm Must Be A Monopolist D. The Firm Will Produce Less Than Is Socially Optimal E. There Are Positive Externalities In Production
 20. Complete Elimination Of Pollution Is Economically Rational When  A. Pollution Is Associated With Illness In Humans B. For Each Unit Of Pollution, The Cost Of Clean-Up Is Less Than The Benefit From Its Elimination C. The Pollution Will Likely Affect Future Generations D. Msc Of Cleanup < Msb Of Cleanup E. None Of The Above; Complete Elimination Is Never Rational
 21. Pollution Should Be Completely Eliminated  A. When The Marginal Social Benefit Of Control Is Greater Than Or Equal To The Marginal Social Cost Of Control For All Units Of Pollution B. When The Marginal Social Cost Of Control Is Zero C. At No Time, From An Economic Perspective D. All Of The Above E. (A) And (B)
 22. The Optimal Level Of Pollution Control Occurs When  A. Msb Of Control Equals Msc B. Pollution Is Zero C. Msb Of Control Just Exceeds Msc D. Msb Of Control Is Less Than Msc E. None Of The Above
 23. The Market Output Level Tends To Be Socially Optimal When  A. Demand Equals Supply In The Market B. All Costs And Benefits Are Private And Msb=Msc C. There Is Neither A Shortage Nor A Surplus Of The Product D. There Are Externalities In Production E. There Are Externalities In Consumption
 24. Costs Incurred By The Producer For The Use Of Self-Owned Resources Are Called  A. Implicit Costs B. Explicit Costs C. Accounting Costs D. Total Costs E. Marginal Costs
 25. Costs Incurred By The Producer To Buy Or Hire Resources Are Called  A. Implicit Costs B. Explicit Costs C. Opportunity Costs D. Total Costs E. Marginal Costs
 26. Another Term For Implicit Cost Is  A. Out-Of-Pocket Costs B. Explicit Costs C. Opportunity Cost D. Total Cost E. Marginal Cost
 27. Payment By A Firm To Hire A Worker Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Implicit Cost B. Explicit Cost C. Opportunity Cost D. Total Cost E. Marginal Cost
 28. An Upstream Paper Mill Pollutes Water Used By A Downstream Water Bottling Plant, Forcing The Latter To Clean The Water It Uses. Which Of The Following Is ?  A. Both Will Over-Produce B. The Paper Mill Will Under-Produce And The Bottling Plant Will Over-Produce C. The Paper Mill Will Over-Produce And The Bottling Plant Will Under-Produce D. Both Will Under-Produce E. Neither Will Over-Produce Or Under-Produce
29. Which Of The Following Is A Factor Leading To Pollution?  A. People Are Inherently Dirty B. There Are Property Rights To The Environment C. The Environment Is Collectively Consumed D. The Law Of Increasing Returns E. All Of The Above
  Questions 30 - 34 Refer To The Graph Below.   
  30. Given The Ppc Tt1, The Cost Of Increasing Pollution Control From C1 To C2 Is  A. A1a2 Dollars' Worth Of Other Goods And Services B. Q1q2 Dollars' Worth Of Other Goods And Services C. C1c2 Dollars' Worth Of Pollution Control D. Tq1, Dollars' Worth Of Other Goods And Services E. Unable To Be Determined Without Additional Information
 31. Which Of The Following Could Explain A Shift In The Production Possibilities Curve From Tt1 To Tt2?  A. Over-Utilization Of Pollution Control Activities B. Better Techniques Of Pollution Control C. Higher Prices For Other Goods And Services D. Increased Benefits From Pollution Control E. Better Technology For Producing Other Goods And Services
 32. A Technological Advance That Improves Pollution Control Methods Would Cause Which Of The Following Changes On The Graph? A Movement From  A. A1 To A2 B. C1 To C2 C. Q1 To Q2 D. Tt1 To Tt2 E. 0 To C2
 33. Assuming That The Economy Is Operating On The Ppc Tt1, The Benefit Of Increasing Pollution Is Shown On The Graph As A Movement From  A. A2 To A1 B. C2 To C1 C. Q2 To Q1 D. Tt2 To Tt1 E. C2 To 0
 34. Operating At Which Point On The Ppc Tt1 Will Result In The Most Environmental Degradation?  A. T B. T1 C. T2 D. A1 E. A2
  Questions 35 - 39 Refer To The Graph Below.
35. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D2 And S2. If There Are Negative Social Spillovers Associated With The Production Of Z,  A. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Supply Curve Toward S1 B. An Output Greater Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation C. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Demand Curve Toward D1 D. An Output Smaller Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation E. Both (A) And (D)
 36. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D2 And S2. If There Are Positive Social Spillovers Associated With The Production Of Z:  A. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Supply Curve Toward S1 B. An Output Greater Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation C. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Demand Curve Toward D1 D. An Output Smaller Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation E. Both (A) And (D)
 37. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D1 And S1 And There Are Positive Social Spillovers Associated With The Consumption Of Z. Which Curve Could Represent The Msb Curve For Z?  A. D1 B. D2 C. S1 D. S2 E. None Of The Above
 38. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D1 And S1 And There Are Positive Social Spillovers Associated With The Production Of Z. Which Curve Could Represent The Msc Curve For Z?  A. D1 B. D2 C. S1 D. S2 E. None Of The Above
 39. If "Z" Is Pollution Control, Which Of The Following Shifts Illustrates The Effect On The Market For Pollution Control If New Technology To Control Pollution Is Developed?  A. D1 To D2 B. D2 To D1 C. S1 To S2 D. S2 To S1 E. None Of The Above
  Questions 40 - 44 Refer To The Graph Below.   
40. If The Discharge Of The Firm Is Q1 Units Per Day And A Tax Of T1 Per Unit Is Placed On Polluted Discharge, The Firm Will  A. Clean All Of Its Discharge Of Wastes B. Clean None Of Its Discharge Of Wastes C. Spend A0b0 Dollars On Cleaning The Discharge D. Spend A0q0 Dollars On Cleaning The Discharge E. (A) And (D)
 41. A Tax Of T1 Per Unit On Polluted Discharge Will Induce The Firm To  A. Clean Its Discharge Up To Q1 Units Per Day Rather Than Pay The Tax B. Pay The Tax Rather Than Clean Discharge Up To Q1 Units Per Day C. Clean Its Discharge Exceeding Q1 Units Per Day Rather Than Pay The Tax D. Pay The Tax On All Units E. (A) And (D)
 42. A Tax Of More Than T1 Per Unit On Polluted Discharge Will Induce The Firm To Clean Up  A. Q1 B. More Than Q1 C. Q D. More Than Q But Less Than Q1 E. Zero
 43. A Tax Of M0 Per Unit On Polluted Discharge Will Induce The Firm To Clean Up  A. Q1 B. More Than Q1 C. Q D. More Than Q But Less Than Q1 E. Zero
 44. Suppose The Current Tax Is T1 And The Government Wishes To Allow Less Pollution. It Should  A. Raise The Tax Above T1 B. Lower The Tax Below T1 C. Shift The Mpc Curve To The Left D. Shift The Mpc Curve To The Right E. Do None Of The Above
 Questions 45 - 49 Are Based On The Following Information. In A Small City Located On A Lake, The Raw Sewage Of The City Is Dumped Directly Into The Lake. This Has Been A Source Of Distress For Citizens Who Like To Swim, Fish, And Water Ski. A Study Has Been Instituted To Determine What Value The Citizens Place On Pollution Control, And The Results Are Listed In The Following Table. Costs Of Pollution Control Are Also Listed.   
 45. The Marginal Social Benefit Of The Sixth Unit Of Pollution Control Is  A. $495,000 B. $180,000 C. $80,000 D. $60,000 E. $40,000
 46. The Marginal Social Cost Of The Fourth Unit Of Pollution Control Is  A. Zero B. $30,000 C. $90,000 D. $100,000 E. $120,000
 47. At The Economically Efficient Level Of Control, Msb  A. Equals Msc B. Equals $30,000 C. Is Lower Than At One Unit Less Pollution Control D. Is Higher Than At One Unit More Pollution Control E. Is All Of The Above
 48. As The Units Of Pollution Control Increase, The Msb Of Controlling Pollution Is  A. Increasing B. Decreasing C. Constant D. Harder To Define E. Impossible To Determine
 49. The Economically Efficient Level Of Pollution Control Is  A. 10 Units B. 9 Units C. 8 Units D. 4 Units E. 2 Units
  Questions 50 - 54 Refer To The Graph Below.  
 50. Which Curve Is The Firm's Mpb Curve?  A. D B. S C. X1 D. X2 E. None Of The Above
 51. Given That The Firm’s Demand And Supply Curves Are D And S, Respectively, Which Curve Is The Msc Curve For The Polluting Firm's Product?  A. D B. S C. X1 D. X2 E. None Of The Above
 52. What Is The Equilibrium Quantity Of The Polluting Firm's Product In A Market With No Pollution Regulation?  A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined
 53. What Is The Efficient Quantity Of The Polluting Firm's Product?  A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined
 54. The Value Of Well-Being Lost Due To Over-Production Of The Polluting Firm's Product Is Equal To Area  A. Acd B. Abd C. Deg D. Dgf E. This Cannot Be Shown In The Diagram
  Questions 55-59 Refer To The Graph Below.   
 55. Which Curve Is The Msc Curve For The Water-Using Firm's Product?  A. D B. S C. X1 D. X2 E. None Of The Above
 56. What Is The Quantity Of The Firm's Product In A Market With No Pollution Regulation?  A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined
 57. What Is The Efficient Quantity Of The Water-Using Firm's Product?  A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined
 58. The Value Of Well-Being Lost Due To Under-Production Of The Water-Using Firm's Product Is Equal To Area  A. Acd B. Abd C. Bed D. Deg E. Dgf
 59. Social Well-Being Would Be Enhanced If Output Of The Water-Using Firm Were To  A. Increase From The Equilibrium Output B. Decrease From The Equilibrium Output C. Be Equal To The Equilibrium Output D. Be Greater Than Q3 E. Be Less Than Q1
 60. Those Who Suffer From Pollution May Find It To Their Advantage To  A. Have The Government Enact Legislation Compelling The Polluters To Take Antipollution Measures B. Bribe The Polluters To Control Their Pollution C. Have The Government Tax Pollution At A Rate That Increases With The Amount Of Pollution Generated D. Do All Of The Above E. Do None Of The Above
 61. The Efficient Level Of Pollution Is Zero Only If The  A. Marginal Cost Of Pollution Control Is Zero B. Marginal Benefit Of Pollution Control Is Zero C. Mpb Of Pollution Control Equals Msb D. Mpc Of Pollution Control Equals Msc E. Mpc Of Pollution Control Equals Mpb
 62. Requiring Automobiles To Pass Emissions Tests Before Being Allowed On The Road Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Direct Pollution Control B. Indirect Pollution Control C. Pollution Tax D. Market Solution To Pollution E. Positive Externality In Consumption
 63. If A Pollution Tax Is Placed On A Firm Emitting Pollution, The Firm Will Pay The Tax, Rather Than Reduce Its Emissions, As Long As The Tax Is  A. Above Its Mpc Of Pollution Control B. Below Its Mpc Of Pollution Control C. Above The Msc Of Pollution Control D. Below The Msc Of Pollution Control E. Reasonable
 64. If A Pollution Tax Is Placed On A Firm Emitting Pollution, The Firm Will Treat Pollution, Rather Than Pay The Tax, As Long As The Tax Is  A. Above Its Mpc Of Pollution Control B. Below Its Mpc Of Pollution Control C. Above The Msc Of Pollution Control D. Below The Msc Of Pollution Control E. Reasonable
 65. In A Pollution Rights Market,  A. Firms Buy Licenses To Pollute B. Firms Sell Licenses To Pollute C. Environmental Groups Can Reduce Pollution By Buying Licenses To Pollute D. The Government Can Determine The Level Of Pollution By The Number Of Licenses It Issues E. All Of The Above
 66. Pollution Rights Markets  A. Have Been Shown To Work In Theory, But Not In Practice B. Have Never Been Used In The Real World C. Are Used Around The World, But Not In The United States D. Have Been Used To Reduce Sulfur Dioxide Emissions E. Have Not Been Effective In Controlling Sulfur Dioxide Emissions
 67. Direct Or Mandatory Control Imposed By Government On Polluters Presupposes That The Regulatory Body Can  A. Determine What The Desirable Limits Of Pollution Are B. Determine Where The Marginal Costs Of Pollution Are Greatest C. Enforce Standards D. B) And C) E. All Of The Above
 68. An Advantage Of Direct Regulation As A Method Of Controlling Pollution Is That  A. The Optimal Level Of Pollution Control Can Be Easily Determined B. Pollution Reduction Quotas Can Be Varied To Remove Pollution Where It Is Least Costly C. Emission Control Standards Can Be Enforced Readily D. Changes In The Market Are Automatically Reflected In The Regulation E. It Seems Straightforward And Fair
 69. Which Of The Following Approaches Would An Economist Propose To Address Industrial Pollution Of A River?  A. Ban All Dumping Of Pollutants Near Or Into The River B. Limit Each Plant To A Maximum Amount Of Pollutant Emission C. Charge Each Polluter A Fixed Amount For Each Unit Of Pollutant Dumped Into The River D. Direct Pollution Control Regulation E. Command And Control Pollution Regulation
 70. With Tradable Pollution Licenses To Control Pollution, Reductions In Total Pollution  A. Can Be Achieved By Having Government Buy Back Some Of The Licenses B. Can Be Achieved By Having Government Sell More Licenses C. Requires The Government To Buy Back All Existing Licenses And Re-Issue New Licenses D. Cannot Be Achieved E. Is Never Economically Optimal
 71. A Market For Pollution Rights Is An Efficient Approach To Pollution Control Because  A. It Is Cheap To Implement B. It Leads To The Complete Elimination Of Pollution C. It Causes The Pollution To Be Eliminated At The Lowest Cost D. It Is Easy To Enforce E. None Of The Above
 72. Production And Consumption In The Cigarette Market Is Too High Because  A. Producers Do Not Care About The Health Of Their Customers B. Mpc Is Greater Than The Msc C. Mpb Is Greater Than Msb D. Msb Is Greater Than Mpb E. Mpb Is Less Than Msb
 73. When Pollution Is Not Regulated In The Market, Polluting Firms Will  A. Under-Utilize Resources And Charge High Prices B. Under-Utilize Resources And Charge Low Prices C. Use The Appropriate Level Of Resources, But Charge High Prices D. Be Very Profitable E. Over-Utilize Resources And Charge Low Prices
 74. For A Tax On Pollution To Be Effective, It Must Be  A. Placed On The Firm Polluting B. Greater Than The Cost Of Cleaning-Up The Pollution C. Placed On The Consumer D. Less Than The Cost Of Cleaning Up The Pollution E. Set At A Reasonable Rate
 75. Suppose The Government Imposes A Tax On Electric Companies For Each Unit Of Sulfur They Emit. Which Of The Following Would Not Occur?  A. Higher Prices For Electricity B. Lower Prices For Electricity C. Electric Companies Shifting To Low Sulfur Oil D. A Decrease In The Amount Of Electricity Produced E. A Shift To Alternative Energy Resources
 76. If Jim Starts A Landscape Business And Uses A Truck And A Tractor That He Owns To Perform Landscaping Projects, We Can Conclude That  A. The Costs Of The Truck And The Tractor Are Low B. That The Costs Of The Truck And The Tractor Are Explicit Costs C. There Is No Cost To The Business Since He Owns Both The Truck And The Tractor D. That The Costs Associated With Both The Truck And The Tractor Are Implicit Costs E. He Should Ask His Accountant How To Handle The Costs
 77. When Firms Make Decisions About Output And About The Amount Of Pollution That They Produce, Without Government Regulation  A. Firms Only Consider Their Private Benefits And Costs When Making Their Choices B. Firms Choose Not To Pollute Because It's Bad For Their Public Image C. Social Costs Are Always Reflected In The Market Prices Firms Pay For Their Inputs D. Pollution Costs Are Passed On To Consumers In The Form Of Higher Prices E. Government Regulation Is Used Only In Command Economies
 78. The Use Of Pollution Rights Licenses Can Improve Efficiency And Reduce Pollution Since  A. Pollution Rights Licenses Do Not Improve Efficiency Nor Reduce Pollution B. The Licenses Give Environmental Groups Pollution Reducing Permits C. The Cost To Purchase These Licenses Means That Social Costs Are Reflected In The Firm's Costs, Giving The Firm An Incentive To Reduce Pollution When It Is Economically Beneficial D. Such Licenses Improve Efficiency By Pricing Pollution But The Licenses Do Not Reduce Pollution E. There Is No Amount Of Pollution That Is Desirable Or Efficient
   True / False Questions  
79. Pollution Occurs When The Environment Cannot Recycle All The Waste Dumped Into It. 
 80. Air Pollution Did Not Cause Great Concern Until The Last Few Decades. 
 81. Water Pollution Is Measured In Terms Of The Amount Of Toxins In The Water. 
 82. The Level Of Dissolved Oxygen Is An Important Measure Of Water Quality. 
 83. Pollution Is Generated Because Firms Use Inefficient Production Processes. 
 84. Pollution Consists Of Loading The Environment With Wastes That Are Not Completely Recycled, Are Not Recycled Fast Enough, Or Are Not Recycled At All. 
 85. Pollution Results In Resource Misallocation. 
 86. The "Marginal Social Benefit" Of An Economic Activity Is The Benefit That Is Just Above The Margin Of Being Zero. 
 87. If The Marginal Social Cost Of Attaining A Certain Level Of Water Purity Exceeds The Marginal Social Benefit, The Level Of Water Purity Should Be Decreased. 
 88. Net Social Benefits Will Always Be Increased By Increasing Pollution Control If The Marginal Social Benefit Of The Increase In Pollution Control Is Greater Than The Marginal Social Cost Of Additional Control Efforts. 
 89. Pollution Did Not Exist In Any Appreciable Amounts Prior To The Industrial Revolution. 
 90. The Optimum Level Of Pollution Is Zero. 
 91. The Costs Of Pollution Control To A Society Are Measured By The Value Of The Goods And Services That Must Be Given Up To Have The Control. 
 92. Complete Elimination Of Pollution Would Only Make Economic Sense If The Cost To Eliminate The Last Unit Of Pollution Is Less Than The Benefit From Its Elimination. 
 93. The Socially Optimal Level Of Production For Any Good Or Service Is Found Where Mpb=Mpc. 
 94. Deodorant May Be An Example Of A Good For Which Msb > Mpb. 
 95. If The Mpc Of Production Is Less Than The Msc, The Market Will Produce Too Much Of The Product. 
 96. Enjoying The Smell Of Bread Baking From Your Neighbor's House Is An Example Of A Negative Externality. 
 97. If Your Snoring Keeps Your Roommate From Sleeping, You Roommate Is Experiencing A Negative Externality. 
 98. Pollution Is An Example Of A Negative Externality In Consumption. 
 99. Implicit Costs Are Opportunity Costs. 
 100. Explicit Costs Are Equal To The Value Of Self-Owned Resources. 
 101. Implicit Costs Are Also Known As Accounting Costs. 
 102. Direct Controls, Such As Setting Emission Standards For Automobiles, Will Achieve A Pollution Free Environment. 
 103. When A Firm Pollutes, Its Product Will Be Under-Priced And Over-Produced. 
 104. An Increase In A Tax Per Unit Of Polluted Discharge Will Decrease The Amount Of Pollution. 
 105. If Polluters Were Forced To Pay The Full Cost Of Their Activities, The Price Of Goods Produced By Polluting Firms Would Rise. 
 106. Direct Prohibition Of Pollution Has The Disadvantage Of Providing Economic Incentives For Polluters Not To Pollute. 
 107. In The Case Of An Upstream Paper Mill That Pollutes Water Used By A Downstream Power Plant Forcing The Latter To Clean The Water It Uses, The Costs Of Pollution By The Paper Industry Are Borne By Both The Consumers And Producers Of Electricity. 
 108. Whenever Consumers Are Willing To Pay More For An Item Than It Costs To Produce It, It Is Efficient To Expand Output. 
 109. Governmental Regulations Requiring Anti-Pollution Devices On Automobiles Result In A Decrease In The Demand For Automobiles And An Increase In Price. 
 110. Federal Grants Made To State And Local Governments For The Construction Of Sewage Treatment Facilities Encourage Private Industries To Develop Low Pollution Methods Of Production. 
 111. The Optimum Level Of Pollution Control Is Where Marginal Social Benefit Equals Marginal Social Cost. 
 112. Incentives To Pollute Stem From An Absence Of Property Rights In The Environment And From The Collectively Consumed Nature Of Whatever Is Being Polluted. 
 113. A Major Advantage Of Using Taxes To Control Pollution Is That They Provide An Incentive To The Polluter To Seek Improved Ways To Clean Up Discharge. 
 114. The Most Efficient Way To Control Pollution Is Direct Prohibition Of Polluting Activities By The Government. 
 115. Under The Private Property Rights Approach To Pollution Control, The Industry Or Firm That Most "Values" The Right To The Environment Will Control Environmental Services. 
 116. It Is Efficient For Regulatory Bodies To Induce Reduction In Pollution When The Marginal Social Cost Is Lowest, Regardless Of Which Firms Are The Worst Polluters. 
 117. A Pollution Rights Market Can Be An Efficient Method Of Pollution Control. 
 118. When Pollution Rights Markets Are Created, Those Firms Who Can Reduce Pollution Most Cheaply Will Do So. 
 119. When Pollution Rights Markets Are Used, The Overall Level Of Pollution Is Reduced If The Government Sells Additional Licenses. 
 120. The Establishment Of Clearly Defined Property Rights To The Environment Would Lead To An Elimination Of Pollution. 
 121. The Establishment Of Property Rights To The Environment Would Not, On Its Own, Lead To The Optimal Level Of Pollution Control. 
 122. Deodorant Is An Example Of A Collectively Consumed Good. 
 123. Polluting Firms Charge Prices Below What Would Exist Without Pollution. 
 124. The Creation Of A Market For Pollution Rights Eliminates Pollution Where It Is Cheapest To Do So. 
 125. When A Firm Has To Clean Environmental Resources Prior To Using Them, The Consumers Of That Firm's Products Are Charged Higher Prices Than Would Exist In The Absence Of Pollution. 
 126. To Date, There Has Been No Formal Use Of Pollution Rights Markets. 
 127. Enforcement Is A Problem With All Methods Of Pollution Regulation. 
 128. Pollution Regulation Works Well Because Economists, Not Politicians, Are In Charge Of Regulatory Bodies. 
 Chapter 05
 Economics Of Crime And Its Prevention: How Much Is Too Much?
  Multiple Choice Questions  
1. An Immoral Act Is  A. Easy To Define B. Always Illegal C. Different In Different Societies D. Defined Consistently Across The United States E. All Of The Above
 2. Illegal Acts Are  A. Also Immoral B. Ones That Society Has Determined That It Is Better Off Allowing C. Designated As Such By The Criminal Justice System D. Prevented Once A Law Is Passed E. All Of The Above
 3. Aggravated Assault Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Violent Crime B. Crime Against Property C. Illegal Trafficking Of Goods And Services D. "Other" Crime E. None Of The Above
 4. Arson Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Violent Crime B. Crime Against Property C. Illegal Trafficking Of Goods And Services D. "Other" Crime E. None Of The Above
 5. Prostitution Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Violent Crime B. Crime Against Property C. Illegal Trafficking Of Goods And Services D. "Other" Crime E. None Of The Above
 6. Which Of The Following Statements Is Correct?  A. Criminal Acts Are Illegal Acts Whether Or Not Those Acts Are Immoral B. Some Immoral Acts Are Criminal Acts And Some Are Not C. Some Acts Are Criminal Because They Lead To Consequences The Criminal Is Unaware Of D. Some Acts That Might Result In Chaotic Conditions Are Made Criminal By Legislative Bodies E. All Of The Above
 7. Which Of The Following Exists When An Individual Consumes Benefits From A Public Good But Does Not Pay For Its Cost?  A. Free-Riding B. A Negative Externality In Consumption C. A Negative Externality In Production D. Implicit Costs E. Psychic Costs
 8. The Free-Rider Problem Refers To  A. Those Who Receive The Benefits Of A Public Good Without Paying A Part Of Its Cost B. Those Who Ride Public Transportation Without Paying Their Fares C. Those Who Ride In Rodeos And Do Not Win Prizes D. Jockeys Who Are Not Paid E. None Of The Above
 9. Which Of The Following Goods Or Services Is A Public Good?  A. Polio Immunization B. Stamp Collection C. A Smoke Detector D. National Defense E. A Burglar Alarm
 10. Government Can Effectively Remedy The Free-Rider Problem By  A. Requiring All Who Receive The Benefits Of A Public Good Or Service To Pay Appropriate Taxes For It B. Imposing A Tax On Automobiles And All Other Forms Of Transportation C. Eliminating All Forms Of Transportation D. Banning Private Crime Prevention Activities E. None Of The Above
 11. A Characteristic Of A Public Good Or Service Is  A. That No Individual Can Identify Specifically The Part Of It That He Or She Consumes B. Once The Good Is Provided, It Is Difficult Or Impossible To Exclude Anyone From Using It C. If It Is Provided Privately, It Generates A "Free-Rider" Problem D. One Person's Use Does Not Decrease The Quantity Available For Others E. All Of The Above
 12. Which Of The Following Is Most Likely A Public Good?  A. A College Education B. A Smoke Detector C. Smallpox Immunization D. Elementary Education E. Space Exploration
 13. A Group Project Has Been Assigned And Most Of The Work Ends Up Being Produced By Only One Or Two Of The Group's Members. This Is An Example Of  A. The Free-Rider Problem B. Diminishing Marginal Returns C. The Opportunity Cost Principle D. Equimarginal Principle E. An Immoral Act
 14. Immunization For Polio Is An Example Of A(N)  A. Semi Private Good B. Public Good C. Private Good D. Good Which The Market Will Efficiently Produce E. Externality In Production
 15. Which Of The Following Statements Is  ?  A. The Government In A Private Enterprise Economy Confines Its Production Of Goods And Services To Public Goods B. A Major Difference Between Private Enterprise Economic System And A Socialistic Economic System Is That The Government Of The Latter Is Responsible For The Production Of Most Private, As Well As Public And Semi-Private, Goods C. Governments Of Private Enterprise Systems Leave The Bulk Of Private Goods To Be Produced By Private Businesses D. Governments Of Private Enterprise Economies Play A Relatively Important Role In The Provision Of Semi-Private Goods E. None Of The Above
 16. The Costs Of Resources Used In Crime Prevention  A. Are Equal To The Value Those Resources Would Have Provided In Their Best Alternative Use B. Are Equal To The Value Of These Resources In Reducing Crime C. Can Be Approximated By The Expenditures On Criminal Activities D. Both (A) And (C) E. All Of The Above
 17. From An Economic Point Of View, Crime Prevention Activities Should Be Expanded To The Point At Which  A. Their Marginal Social Benefit No Longer Exceeds Their Marginal Social Cost B. All Crime Is Stamped Out C. All Crimes Against Persons Are Eliminated D. Their Total Gross Benefits Are Maximum E. None Of The Above
 18. The Marginal Cost Of A Good Is  A. The Change In Total Product Associated With The Change In Resource Inputs B. The Average Cost Of The Product C. The Total Cost Of The Good Divided By Output D. The Change In Total Cost Per Unit Change In Output E. None Of The Above
 19. According To The Equimarginal Principle, A City's Crime Prevention Budget Should Be Allocated Such That  A. The Last Dollar Spent On Detection And Apprehension Of Criminals Should Yield The Same Addition To People's Benefits As The Last Dollar Spent Determining Guilt Or Innocence And The Last Dollar Spent On Corrections And Punishment B. Total Benefits Of Crime Prevention Are Equal To Total Costs C. Expenditure On Court Services Proceeds Exceed Those On The Police Force Because Services Of A Lawyer Are More Expensive Than Those Of A Policeman Or Policewoman D. The Same Number Of Police Officers Patrol Each Square Block At The Margins Of The City's Residential Area E. The Same Number Of Police Officers Are Used Per Square Block In The City's Suburbs As In Its Downtown Area
 20. Suppose An Auto Worth $25,000 Is Stolen. The Economic Cost Of This Theft, From Society's Point Of View, Does Not Include  A. The $25,000 The Auto Is Worth B. The Value Of The Resources Expended By Society Attempting To Capture The Thief C. The Value Of The Inconvenience Caused To The Owner D. The Cost Of Resources Used To Reduce Car Theft E. All Of The Above
 21. Suppose The Total Social Benefits Of Crime Protection Increase From $800,000 To $900,000 And Total Social Costs Increase From $650,000 To $800,000, With The Addition Of Another Unit Of Crime Prevention Services.  A. The Msb>Msc And Crime Prevention Activities Should Be Expanded B. The Msb=Msc And The Level Of Crime Prevention Is Optional C. The Msb<Msc And Crime Prevention Activities Should Not Be Expanded D. The Tsb>Tsc And Crime Prevention Should Be Expanded E. None Of The Above
 22. Police Officers Should Be Hired Up To The Point Where  A. The Public Feels Safe In Their Homes B. The Crime Rate Falls To Zero C. The Benefit Of The Last Officer Hired Is Just Equal To What Its Cost To Hire Her D. The Benefit Of The Last Officer Hired Exceeds The Cost E. It Is Not Possible To Tell Without Further Information
 23. Which Of The Following Is Not An Economic Cost Of Crime? The  A. Lost Earnings Of Victims Of Crime B. Value Of Property Destroyed By Criminal Activities C. Dollars Spent On Illegal Drugs D. Tax Dollars Spent On Crime Prevention E. Suffering Experienced By Crime Victims
 24. Economic Analysis Of Crime Can  A. Determine What Activities Should Be Considered Illegal B. Determine What The Economic Impact Will Be Of Making Certain Activities Illegal C. Tell Us Which Activities Should Be Punishable D. Tell Us How Much It Will Cost To Eliminate Crime E. Do All Of The Above
 25. Marginal Social Benefits Of Crime Prevention Activities  A. Are The Increase In The Value Of Such Activities To The Community Resulting From A One-Unit Increase In Such Activities B. Are Difficult To Calculate C. Usually Decrease With Additional Units Of Those Activities D. Include A Decrease In The Suffering Of Crime Victims E. All Of The Above
 26. If Society Receives No Additional Benefit From Increasing Crime Prevention Activities, The Msb Of Crime Prevention  A. Equals 0 B. Is Increasing C. Is Decreasing D. Is Equal To The Msc Of Crime Prevention E. Must Rise In The Long Run.
 27. If Increasing Police Patrols In A Neighborhood Requires Paying Officers Overtime, Then The Marginal Cost Of Additional Police Patrols  A. Increases B. Decreases C. Equals Msb D. Must Fall Before It Is Efficient To Have More Patrols E. Are Too High
 28. Assume Police Officers And Prison Guards Earn $30,000. Hiring A Police Officer Changes The Total Benefits Of Crime Prevention From 100 To 120, While Hiring A Prison Guard Increases Total Benefits From 100 To 115. If The Crime Prevention Budget Is Increased By $30,000, Which Of The Following Is The Most Efficient Way To Spend The Money?  A. Hire A Guard B. Hire A Police Officer C. Hire One Guard And One Police Officer D. Hire A Half Time Guard And A Half Time Police Officer E. Do Not Spend The Additional Money
 29. If The Private Benefit Of Buying A Car Alarm Is $250 And The Social Benefit Of The Car Alarm Is $350, Is It Optimal For You To Buy A Car Alarm If It Costs $300?  A. Yes, Because Benefits Exceed The Cost B. Yes, Because Msb > Msc C. No, Because Private Benefits Are Less Than Private Cost D. No, Because Mpb < Msc E. The Outcome Is The Same Whether You Buy The Alarm Or Not
 30. Additional Expenditures Should Not Be Made On Police Protection If The Additional Cost Of Police Protection  A. Is Less Than The Additional Benefit B. Would Increase The Msb Of Fire Protection By More C. Is More Than The Change Total Social Benefits As A Result Of The Additional Police Protection D. Would Cause A Larger Increase In Total Social Benefits If Spent Elsewhere E. Is All Of The Above
 31. An Additional Expenditure On Crime Prevention Should Be Allocated To The Activity Where  A. Msb Is Greatest B. Msc Is Lowest C. Tsb Is Greatest D. Tsc Is Lowest E. Tsc Is Highest
  Questions 32 - 36 Refer To The Table Below.   
 32. The Marginal Social Benefit Of The Third Unit Of Crime Prevention Is  A. 200 B. 180 C. 160 D. 140 E. 90
 33. The Marginal Social Cost Of The Fourth Unit Of Crime Prevention Is  A. 270 B. 180 C. 160 D. 90 E. 60
 34. The Efficient Number Of Units Of Crime Prevention Is  A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
 35. As More Crime Prevention Is Added, The Msb Of Crime Prevention  A. Increases B. Decreases C. Becomes Higher Than Mcs D. Does Not Change E. Is More Difficult To Determine
 36. The Net Benefit Of An Additional Unit Of Crime Prevention To Society Is Highest With How Many Units Of Crime Prevention?  A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 5 E. 6
  Questions 37 - 41 Refer To The Table Below.    The Cost Of Each Police Officer Is $20,000; The Cost Of Each Patrol Car Is $10,000.
 37. If The Total Budget Is $100,000, What Is The Most Efficient Allocation Of The Crime Prevention Budget?  A. 1 Police Officer; 8 Patrol Cars B. 2 Police Officers; 6 Patrol Cars C. 3 Police Officers; 4 Patrol Cars D. 4 Police Officers; 2 Patrol Cars E. 5 Police Officers; 0 Patrol Cars
 38. If The Police Department Gets An Additional Allocation Of $40,000, How Should The Money Be Allocated Between Police Officers And Patrol Cars?  A. 2 Police Officers; 0 Patrol Cars B. 2 Police Officers; 1 Patrol Car C. 1 Police Officer; 1 Patrol Car D. 1 Police Officer; 2 Patrol Cars E. 0 Police Officers; 4 Patrol Cars
 39. The Net Social Benefit Of The Third Patrol Car Is  A. $11,000 B. $15,000 C. $20,000 D. $36,000 E. $45,000
 40. The Total Benefit Of Hiring Three Police Officers Is  A. $18,000 B. $48,000 C. $60,000 D. $148,000 E. $249,000
 41. The Net Social Benefit Of Hiring One Police Officer And Buying One Patrol Car Is  A. $40,000 B. $41,000 C. $80,000 D. $120,000 E. $150,000
 42. If Abortion Were Made Illegal Throughout The United States,  A. The Cost Of Abortion Services Would Rise B. The Quality Of Abortion Services Would Fall And Become Less Standardized C. The Supply Of Abortion Services Would Decrease D. The Demand For Abortion Services Would Decrease E. All Of The Above
 43. The More Abortions A Doctor Performs, The Fewer The Appendectomies He Can Perform. Measuring The Cost Of An Abortion In Terms Of The Number Of Appendectomies He Must Forego Performing Is An Illustration Of The  A. Economies Of Mass Production B. Law Of Diminishing Returns C. Opportunity Cost Principle D. Law Of Comparative Advantage E. Law Of Demand
 44. In Any City With A Given Crime Prevention Budget, Additional Suppression Of Prostitution  A. Will Necessarily Result In Unemployment B. Is Always Economically And Morally Defensible C. Is Never Defensible Economically Or Morally D. Will Usually Be Achieved At The Expense Of An Increase In Other Kinds Of Crime E. All Of The Above
 45. Which Of The Following Is An Economic Effect Of Prohibition Of Alcohol?  A. A Reduction In The Supply, A Decrease In Price, And A Decrease In The Quality Of Liquor B. An Increase In Supply, A Decrease In Price, And An Increase In The Quality Of Liquor C. A Decrease In Supply, An Increase In Price, And No Change In The Quality D. A Decrease In Supply, An Increase In Price, And A Decrease In Quality E. None Of The Above
 46. If A Law Is Passed Making It Illegal For Unlicensed Barbers To Cut Hair, Which Of The Following Will Result?  A. Higher Quality Haircuts B. Higher Priced Haircuts C. Cleaner, More Sanitary Barber Shops D. Lower Priced Haircuts E. More Barbers In The Trade
 47. Suppose A Poor Person Steals $10,000 From A Middle Income Person. Economic Analysis Tells Us That  A. There Is An Economic Loss For The Society As A Whole B. There Is An Economic Gain For The Society As A Whole C. A Public Good Will Usually Be Purchased With The Money D. We Cannot Be Sure Whether There Is Economic Gain Or Loss For The Society As A Whole E. The Benefit To The Poor Person Exceeds The Cost To The Middle Income Person
 48. The Most Likely Economic Effects Of The Legalization Of Marijuana Are  A. An Increase In Both Supply And Demand B. A Fall In The Price Of Marijuana C. An Increase In Marijuana Use D. An Increase In The Quality Of Marijuana E. All Of The Above
  Questions 49 - 53 Refer To The Graph Below.   
 49. Which Of The Following Shifts Best Represents The Likely Effect Of Legalizing Marijuana?  A. D1 To D2 B. D2 To D1 C. S2 To S1 D. D1 To D2 And S1 To S2 E. D2 To D1 And S1 To S2
 50. If The Market For Marijuana Changes From Illegal To Legal, Supply Will  A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Left D. Not Be Affected E. Become Steeper
 51. Curves D1 And S1 Represent The Market For Marijuana If It Is Illegal. Legalization Of Marijuana Will Cause Equilibrium Price And Quantity To Change To  A. P1 And Q2 B. P2 And Q1 C. P3 And Q4 D. P4 And Q3 E. None Of The Above
 52. If The Market For Marijuana Changes From Legal To Illegal, Demand Will  A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Right D. Not Be Affected E. Become Steeper
  53. In Addition To The Change In Supply, Demand, Price, And Quantity, Legalization Of Marijuana Would Have Which Of The Following Effects?  A. Improved Quality B. Less Criminal Activity C. A Decrease In Resources Needed For Crime Prevention D. All Of The Above E. None Of The Above
  Questions 54 - 58 Refer To The Graph Below.   
 54. Which Of The Following Shifts Best Represents The Likely Effect Of Prohibition On The Market For Beer?  A. D1 To D2 B. D2 To D1 C. S2 To S1 D. D1 To D2 And S1 To S2 E. D2 To D1 And S2 To S1
 55. With Prohibition, Supply In The Market For Beer Will  A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Right D. Not Be Affected E. Become Flatter
 56. With Prohibition, Demand In The Market For Beer Will  A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Right D. Not Be Affected E. Become Flatter
 57. Curves D2 And S2 Represent The Market For Beer If It Is Legal. Prohibition Will Cause Equilibrium Price And Quantity To Change To  A. P1 And Q2 B. P2 And Q1 C. P3 And Q4 D. P4 And Q3 E. None Of The Above
 58. In Addition To The Change In Supply, Demand, Price, And Quantity Of Beer, Prohibition Would Have Which Of The Following Effects?  A. Improved Quality B. Less Criminal Activity C. A Decrease In Resources Needed For Crime Prevention D. All Of The Above E. None Of The Above
 59. Which Of The Following Would Not Result From The Legalization Of Marijuana?  A. A Fall In The Price Of Marijuana B. An Increase In The Quality Of Marijuana C. A Significant Increase In The Supply Of Marijuana D. A Significant Increase In The Demand For Marijuana E. A Decrease In The Supply Of Marijuana
 60. People Choose To Participate In Criminal Activities Because  A. Their Implicit Costs Are Low B. They Have A Strong, Unrestrained Emotion C. The Probability Of Getting Caught Is Low D. The Potential Return Is High E. All Of The Above
 61. Economics Explains The Decision To Participate In Criminal Activities Most Often In The Case Of  A. Violent Crimes B. Crimes Of Passion C. Murder D. Trafficking In Illegal Substances E. Vandalism
 62. If You Are Willing To Take A Pay Cut To Live Near A Ski Resort, The Ski Resort Provides You With  A. Free Ski Lessons B. Psychic Benefits C. Opportunities For Advancement D. Marginal Social Benefits E. Marginal Social Costs
 63. If Income From The Sale Of Illegal Goods Exceeds The Production Costs Of The Goods, Which Of The Following Is ?  A. The Criminal Earns A Profit B. Crime "Pays" C. Revenue Plus Psychic Income Exceeds All Costs D. Income More Than Covers Explicit, Implicit, And Psychic Costs E. All Of The Above
 64. Which Of The Following Is An Explicit Cost Of An Illegal Marijuana Growing Operation? The Cost Of  A. Land B. Electricity C. Fertilizer And Pesticides D. Labor E. All Of The Above
 65. Which Of The Following Is An Implicit Cost Of An Illegal Marijuana Growing Operation?  A. Foregone Income Due To Time Spent Managing The Operation B. Lost Time If The Manager Is Caught C. Lost Liberty If The Manager Is Jailed D. The Value Of The Time Spent Avoiding Detection E. All Of The Above
 66. Which Of The Following Does Not Go Into The Calculation Of The Implicit Cost Of A Marijuana Growing Operation?  A. The Probability Of Getting Caught B. The Severity Of Potential Jail Sentences C. The Time It Takes To Tend The Crop D. Payments For Fertilizer And Pesticides E. None Of The Above (They All Go Into The Calculation Of Implicit Costs)
 67. Which Of The Following Decreases A Person's Implicit Cost Of Engaging In The Illegal Production Of Marijuana?  A. Concern About Social Standing B. Unemployment C. An Intense Fear Of Incarceration D. A High Probability Of Getting Caught E. All Of The Above
 68. When An Individual Incurs Costs In The Form Of Negative Personal Satisfaction, The Costs Are  A. Opportunity Costs B. Implicit Costs C. Psychic Costs D. Psychic Income E. Externalities
 69. Which Of The Following Increases The Chances That A Person Will Engage In Criminal Activity?  A. A High Perceived Probability Of Getting Caught B. A Low Potential Pay-Off From The Crime C. The Ability To Restrain Emotions D. A Low Opportunity Cost E. None Of The Above
 70. When An Individual Receives Benefits From A Business Endeavor In The Form Of Personal Satisfaction, The Benefits Are Known As  A. Opportunity Costs B. Implicit Costs C. Psychic Costs D. Psychic Income E. Externalities
 71. Which Of The Following Will Increase The Implicit Costs Of Committing A Crime?  A. Decreased Crime Prevention Expenditures B. Decreased Probability Of Getting Caught C. Improved Job Opportunities D. More Lenient Sentencing E. Less Severe Penalties
 72. Which Of The Following Could Explain Why Criminals Commit Crimes That Are Punished By The Death Penalty?  A. They Perceive That The Probability Of Getting Caught Is Zero B. The Crime Is A "Crime Of Passion." C. Their Opportunity Cost Is Zero D. The Benefit Of The Crime Is Infinite E. All Of The Above
 73. Which Of The Following Policies Could Increase The Cost Of Committing Crimes?  A. Job Training Programs B. Increased Employment Opportunities C. Higher Crime Prevention Budgets D. More Severe Penalties E. All Of The Above
 74. Some People Give Up High-Paying City Jobs To Live Much Simpler, Rural Lives. Which Of The Following Is A Sound Economic Explanation For This?  A. The Very High Psychic Income They Receive From The Simple Way Of Life B. The Lower Cost Of Living In The Country C. The Fear Of Crime In The City D. The Fact That Rural Jobs Are Easier E. None Of The Above
 75. Job Training Programs, Remedial Education Courses, And Recreational Activities Might Lead To Reduced Crime Rates In Depressed Areas By  A. Providing Jobs To Instructors And Counselors B. Increasing The Opportunity Costs Of Committing Crimes C. Improving The Public's View Of Their Community D. Providing Psychic Income To Organizers E. None Of The Above
 76. An Example Of A Semi-Private Good Would Be  A. Measles Inoculation Programs B. A Neighborhood Crime Watch Group C. Talking On A Cell Phone During The Screening Of A Movie D. All Of The Above Are Semi-Private Goods E. None Of The Choices Are Semi-Private Goods
 77. Consumer Ratings Of Products Online, Like The Zagat's Restaurant Guide And Epinions Can Be Considered Examples Of  A. Private Goods B. Public Goods C. Semi-Private Goods D. Experience Goods E. Worthless, Since You Don't Know Who Is Doing The Reviewing
 78. Economists Think That You Can Analyze Why Individuals Commit Crimes Because  A. Criminals Are Always Trying To Obtain Monetary Gains B. Criminals Weigh The Costs And Benefits Associated With The Costs Of Committing A Crime C. Crime Has Costs To Society D. All Of The Above E. It Is Not Possible To Analyze The Commission Of Crimes Using Economic Analysis
  True/ False Questions  
79. Murder Is Both Illegal And Immoral. 
 80. Current Reports On Crime Are Concerned Solely With The Number Of Crimes Committed And Not With Dollar Estimates Of Their Cost. 
 81. The Criminality Of Specific Acts Can Be Ascertained By Evaluating Their Morality Or Immorality. 
 82. Vandalism Is A Violent Crime. 
 83. Violent Crimes Are Crimes Against Persons. 
 84. Crime Prevention Is A Public Good And Is Subject To The Free-Rider Problem. 
 85. The Free-Rider Problem Occurs When People Cannot Be Excluded From The Benefits Of A Public Good Even Though They Do Not Help Pay For Production Of It. 
 86. Government Can Effectively Remedy The Free-Rider Problem By Taxing All Who Receive Benefits Of A Public Good. 
 87. Automobiles Can Be Considered Semiprivate Goods, Since They Produce Positive Externalities. 
 88. Semi-Private Goods And Services Yield Identifiable Benefits To The One Who Consumes Them, But Their Consumption By One Person Yields Spillover Benefits To Other Persons. 
 89. Thanks To The Data-Collecting Activities Of The U.S. Department Of Justice, We Now Have Very Good Estimates Of The Costs Of Crime. 
 90. Society's Standards Of Social Values Are An Important Determinant Of The Level Of Criminal Activity. 
 91. Laws Prohibiting Abortions Rest On Moral Grounds Rather Than Economic Grounds. 
 92. Group Projects Can Suffer From A Free-Rider Problem. 
 93. A Polio Vaccine Is An Example Of A Good That Is Semi-Private. 
 94. Public Goods Include Things Like Concerts And Theater Performances. 
 95. Free-Riders Can Be Useful In Group Work Situations Because They Cause The Work To Be Completed By Those Members Of The Group Who Are Best At The Assigned Tasks. 
 96. From The Viewpoint Of A Society As A Whole, Theft Represents A Transfer Of Income To Thieves From Victims Of Theft. 
 97. If The Correct Amount Has Been Budgeted For Crime Prevention Activities, The Last Dollar Spent Should Yield Approximately One Dollar's Worth Of Additional Benefits. 
 98. Crime Prevention Activities Should, If Effective, Raise Gdp Above The Level That It Would Be In Their Absence. 
 99. The Economic Cost Of Crime Prevention Is The Value Of The Goods And Services That Could Have Been Produced Using Resources Put Into Crime Prevention. 
 100. Marginal Social Benefits Are The Positive Social Spillovers In Consumption That Result From The Consumption Of Public Goods. 
 101. The Costs Of Being Apprehended And Convicted Of A Crime Are Less For Those Living In Poverty Than For Those From Middle And Upper Income Groups. 
 102. The Ultimate Economic Goal Of Crime Prevention Is Complete Suppression Of Crime. 
 103. More Criminal Justice Expenditures Should Be Made For Detection And Apprehension Of Criminals. 
 104. Crime Prevention Activities Should Be Expanded To The Point At Which Their Marginal Social Benefit Is Equal To Their Marginal Social Costs. 
 105. In The United States, The Federal Government Spends More For Corrections Than State And Local Governments. 
 106. Crime Prevention Is An Example Of A "Free" Good Since It Raises Gdp Above The Level That It Would Be In The Absence Of Prevention. 
 107. The Equimarginal Principle May Be Applied Effectively Any Time A Fixed Budget Must Be Allocated Among Competing Uses. 
 108. The Equimarginal Principle Is Satisfied When We Spend The Same Amount Of Money On The Police, Courts, And Prisons. 
 109. Trafficking In Illegal Goods And Services Adds To The Well-Being Of Consumers. 
 110. If Abortion Is Made Illegal, Demand And Supply Will Fall. 
 111. The Economic Effects Of Prohibition Of Alcoholic Beverages Include A Decrease In Supply, An Increase In Price, And A Decrease In Quality. 
 112. The Legalization Of Marijuana Would Be Unlikely To Greatly Increase The Demand For The Good. 
 113. Trafficking In Illegal Goods And Services Necessarily Reduces The Economic Welfare Of A Society. 
 114. A Budget Is Allocated Efficiently When All Functions Within The Budget Receive The Same Amount Of Funding. 
 115. The Demand For Abortions Would Fall Significantly If The Service Were Made Illegal. 
 116. Psychic Income Refers To The Satisfaction Received From Attending Cultural Events Like Special Showings At An Art Gallery. 
 117. The Total Revenue From A Business Includes The Money Income The Business Takes In And Any Psychic Income The Owners Receive. 
 118. If The Likelihood Of Being Caught Committing A Crime Is Low, The Severity Of The Penalty Is Of Little Importance To Potential Criminals. 
 119. The Legalization Of Marijuana Would Cause A Big Increase In The Demand For The Drug. 
 120. The Legalization Of Marijuana Would Lead To A Significant Increase In The Quality Of The Drug Available On The Streets. 
 121. Making Abortion Services Illegal Would Lead To A Large Decrease In The Demand For The Service. 
 122. Recreational Activities For Youths In Depressed Areas Might Help Reduce Criminal Activities By Increasing The Opportunity Cost Of Committing Crimes. 
 123. The Value Of Property Damage From A Crime Is An Implicit Cost Of The Crime. 
 124. The Negative Personal Satisfaction Received Because You Have To Drive A Different Car Than You Would Otherwise Choose Because It Is Harder To Steal Is An Example Of A Psychic Cost Of Crime. 
 125. If You Love Your Job, You Are Receiving Psychic Income. 
 126. The Opportunity Cost Of A Doctor Who Spends One-Half Hour Performing An Abortion Might Be The $2,000 He Could Earn During The Same Amount Of Time Performing An Appendectomy. 
 127. People Are More Likely To Commit Crimes If They Perceive The Probability Of Getting Caught Is Low. 
 128. The Opportunity Cost Of Jail Time Is What You Could Have Done Had You Not Been In Jail. 
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